The urgent care facility is equipped to address less serious medical conditions and illnesses. Although not life-threatening, these illnesses need to be treated right away. These consist of: A sprain or a strain
What is Emergency Condition in health?
A medical emergency is any major illness, symptom, or condition that puts someone's life or physical well-being in danger right away.
Get someone to an emergency care center as quickly as you can if they have undergone trauma, are having difficulties breathing, are bleeding uncontrollably, or are experiencing an altered state of mind.
Medical experts with the necessary training must respond quickly to medical emergencies. Make a 911 call right away if you or someone else is facing an emergency.
The resources and skilled medical staff at Dignity Health sites allow for the prompt and efficient handling of medical emergencies.
Visit a local ER or urgent care facility.
In an emergency, it may not always be possible to make a diagnosis before treating the patient. However, the medical scheme must approve therapy if doctors believe the patient has a condition that is covered by PMBs. Plans may ask that the diagnosis be verified with proof within a reasonable amount of time.
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In evaluating for body composition, a doctor will likely review a person's (1 point) a eating habits b age and heart rate c blood sugar and blood pressure d body mass index (bmi).
the nurse is caring for an 88-year-old client who is recovering from an iliac-femoral bypass graft. the client is day 2 postoperative and has been mentally intact, as per baseline. when the nurse assesses the client, it is clear that the client is confused and has been experiencing disturbed sleep patterns and impaired psychomotor skills. which complication should the nurse suspect?
Postoperative delirium is the complication that has to be suspected by the nurse.
What is postoperative delirium?
The most typical post-operative complication in older persons is post-operative delirium, which is delirium that develops after an older adult has had an operation (surgery). There are numerous factors that might lead to delirium, including medications, infections, electrolyte imbalances, and the inability to move around (immobilization).
Postoperative delirium, a serious issue for older persons, is characterised by disorientation, perceptual and cognitive abnormalities, changed attention levels, disturbed sleep patterns, and decreased psychomotor skills.
Hence, the answer is postoperative delirium.
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A provider who stands over a client can be viewed as intimidating and assuming a position of....
the nurse is caring for a client who had a small bowel resection the previous day and has continuous gastric suction attached to the nasogastric tube. which intravenous solution would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client?
To replenish lost fluid from the GI tract, electrolyte solutions such lactated Ringer's are utilised. Albumin is used to treat shock and replace lost protein; 5% dextrose in water only has glucose and no electrolytes to replenish electrolyte losses from the gastrointestinal tract. Because glucose is required for calories when a client eats nothing by mouth, normal saline is devoid of this substance (NPO).
What is nasogastric tube?
The medical procedure known as nasogastric intubation involves inserting a plastic tube via the nose, into the oesophagus, and then into the stomach. Similar procedures include orogastric intubation, which involves inserting a plastic tube via the mouth.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a pneumothorax and chest tube. which assessment finding indicates that the chest tube has been effective? producitive coughing. return of breath sounds. increased pleural drainage. constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
Return of breath sounds is what the nurse finds effective.
What is pneumothorax?
A collapsed lung is known as a pneumothorax. When air seeps into the area between your lung and chest wall, it results in a pneumothorax. Your lung collapses as a result of the air pushing on its outside. Either spontaneous or traumatic pneumothorax occurs. It is referred to as "primary" when it affects a patient with no known underlying ailment; it is referred to as "secondary" when the patient has a condition that is connected to the pneumothorax.
Hence, the answer is return of breath sounds is what the nurse finds effective.
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a client who is receiving antineoplastic medication by the intravenous (iv) route complains of pain at the insertion site of the iv. the nurse inspects the site and finds the area is swollen and reddened. the nurse further observes that the solution is no longer infusing. the nurse immediately takes which priority nursing action?
An individual who is undergoing intravenous chemotherapy. The nurse immediately informs the registered nurse (RN).
Antineoplastic cancer is what kind of cancer?Examples of antineoplastic medications that are known to massively raise immediate hepatic damage when administered in medium to high dosages include busulfan, melphalan, capecitabine, phenothiazines, cytarabine, fluorouracil, and carboplatin. This is especially true when used had have to hematopoietic cell transplantation.
Can antineoplastics lead to cancer?Many antineoplastic drugs are carcinogenic or teratogenic, suggesting that exposure may cause cancer. Antineoplastic medicines are toxic to good cells and tissues by nature, which stunts embryonic growth. This is so because the goal of these treatments is to halt cell growth and division.
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a school-age child has just spilled hot liquid on his arm, and a 4-in (10-cm) area on his forearm is severely burned. his mother calls the emergency department. what should the nurse advise the mother to do?
Apply cool water to the burned area would be most likely, hospital seems extreme, a cream would normally be put on after a day or two, and he child's warmth is pointless.
What is emergency department ?
According to the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey, an emergency department is a hospital location that is staffed twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week, and provides unplanned outpatient treatments to patients whose health requires immediate attention (NHAMCS).
What is burned ?
Devour; oxidise, just like when someone breathes, they burn a certain amount of carbon; burn iron in oxygen; cause to join with oxygen or another active agent with the evolution of heat.
Therefore, Apply cool water to the burned area would be most likely, hospital seems extreme, a cream would normally be put on after a day or two, and he child's warmth is pointless.
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the nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume? a. sitting up in bed b. lying on their side c. sitting in a recliner chair d. sitting up and leaning over a bedside table
Sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on an overbed table is the best position.
What are the causes of emphysema?
Exposure to various inhalation irritants can contribute to emphysema. These include secondhand smoke, air pollution, and chemical fumes or dust from the environment or employment. Rarely, a genetic disorder known as alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can contribute to the development of emphysema. Emphysema mainly results from smoking.
Hence, the answer is, sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on an overbed table.
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a client tells the nurse about recent recurrent episodes of bleeding hemorrhoids. which instruction would the nurse provide to the client to help prevent future hemorrhoidal episodes?
Consume a high-fiber diet and drink adequate water.
Haemorrhoids confer with the blood vessels round and in the rectoanal location(1, 4). they're painless in their everyday nation! it's while this type of veins dilate abnormally that the signs and symptoms referred to above arise. This is referred to as a haemorrhoidal attack, extra commonly called “having haemorrhoids”.
How lengthy hemorrhoids last will vary from character to person. In widespread, small hemorrhoids can depart on their own in some days. Larger hemorrhoids, specially ones that purpose plenty of pain, swelling, and itchiness, can't leave on their personal and can require treatment from a medical doctor to heal.
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Cognitive psychologists posit that individuals who are depressed adopt a negative schema about the world that affects their attention, memory, and information processing. Which of these MOST represents a negative bias associated with attention?a. a tendency to give less importance to positive eventsb. trouble disengaging from negative informationc. a tendency to interpret neutral information negativelyd. better recall of negative information
The trouble disengaging from negative information for Cognitive psychologists posit that individuals who are depressed adopt a negative schema about the world that affects their attention, memory, and information processing.
In tight connections when people have known each other for a long time, the bias may cause people to assume the worst about others. For instance, you can have unfavourable expectations of how your spouse would respond to something and enter the interaction with your guard already up.
This method focuses on the internal factors that affect a person's behaviour. The cognitive method places a strong emphasis on the value of language, decision-making, perception, and attention.
Hence, negative information is trouble for Cognitive psychologists.
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a 70-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. his wife tells you that he collapsed about 5 minutes before your arrival. as you and your partner begin resuscitation, the man's wife tells you that she wants you to let him die in peace. you should:
You should: continue performing CPR and ask her if he has a living will.
In the event that a family member asks you not to try to revive a loved one, you should find out if there is a living will or a "out-of-hospital do not attempt resuscitation" (OOH-DNAR) order. It is usually permitted to stop resuscitative measures if a valid living will or OOH-DNAR order is presented; when needed, consult medical control. The best course of action would be to continue CPR and get in touch with medical control in the absence of a valid living will or OOH-DNAR order. Even in the absence of this documentation, medical supervision may advise you to stop performing CPR based on the patient's medical history, the family's desires, and other factors.
When in doubt, take the patient's side and try to revive them. Few would contest that defending why resuscitation was attempted as opposed to why it was not is better.
What is Cardiac arrest?
The electrical system of a sick heart frequently fails, resulting in cardiac arrests. This problem results in an abnormal cardiac rhythm such ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Extreme heartbeat slowing can potentially lead to cardiac arrest in some cases (bradycardia).
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as medtech and healthtech incorporate artificial intelligence, machine learning and deep learning into patient care systems, what risk posed by health apps and wearables must be considered and managed?
Certain risk posed by health apps and wearables must be considered and managed. They are:
1. Data privacy and security: Health apps and wearables collect sensitive data about a user’s health and wellbeing, meaning that the risk of unauthorized access or data breach must be managed.
2. Accurate diagnosis and treatment: Artificial intelligence, machine learning and deep learning can be used to provide users with health-related data or advice, but this must be accurate in order to be beneficial.
3. Unintended consequences: AI-driven health apps and wearables can have unintended consequences, such as misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment recommendations, or misuse of data.
4. Inappropriate use: AI-driven health apps and wearables should not be used to replace professional medical advice and should be used responsibly.
5. Privacy implications: Health apps and wearables can collect personal data and raise privacy concerns when used in clinical settings.
What are Health Apps?
Health apps are mobile applications that are designed to help people track and monitor their health and fitness. These apps are often tailored to specific tasks such as tracking nutrition, logging physical activity, monitoring sleep, managing stress, and tracking medical appointments. Health apps can provide reminders, notifications, and personalized health advice.
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seizure usually have a blank stare on their face, as if they’re daydreaming, and are completely unaware of their surroundings.
the mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva. t or f
The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva, is True
What is Mucous membrane?
Mucous membrane, the layer lining the gastrointestinal, urogenital, and respiratory systems as well as various body cavities and canals leading to the outside. Only a few body parts, such as the mouth, nose, eyelids, trachea (windpipe), lungs, stomach, intestines, ureters, and urine bladder, have mucous membrane linings.
Mucous membranes have a variety of structures, but they all comprise connective tissue and an outer layer of epithelial cells. Simple columnar epithelium or stratified squamous epithelium, which is made up of many layers of epithelial cells with the top layer being flattened, frequently make up the epithelial layer of the membrane (a layer of column-shaped epithelial cells, the cells being significantly greater in height than width).
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in general, which lifestyle change would result in a longer extension of life? group of answer choices eating no more than 10% of calories from saturated fat quitting drinking alcohol beginning an exercise program quitting smoking at the age of 35 years
In general, changing one’s lifestyle by quitting smoking at the age of 35 will result in a longer extension of life.
Why is smoking harmful?
Smoking tobacco causes immense harm to the body. There are more than 70 known cancer-causing substances that are present in tobacco smoke. These include tar which contains carcinogens and damages the lungs, carbon monoxide which puts stress on the heart and lungs, arsenic which is a carcinogen linked to many types of cancer, and more.
On average, smokers live roughly 10 years less than non-smokers. Smoking increases a person's risk of developing cancer, cardiovascular disease, heart attack, stroke, diabetes, and COPD, which includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. A person's risk of dying from a smoking-related cause is reduced by around 90% if they quit smoking before turning 40.
Hence, changing one’s lifestyle by quitting smoking at the age of 35 will result in a longer extension of life.
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a nurse has provided postpartum discharge instructions to a client who had a cesarean section. what statement by the client would indicate to the nurse that further teaching is necessary?
The discharge instructions given by the nurse was that being careful.
define cesarean section ?
A procedure when the mother's abdominal wall is sliced through in order to deliver the baby.
Shower as necessary. Dry off your wound by patting it.
Keep an eye out for indications of infection, such as increased redness or drainage, in your incision.
When you laugh, cough, or stand from a sleeping or sitting posture, hold a cushion against the incision.
Keep in mind that healing from an incision might take up to 6 weeks.
Your recovery will occur more quickly the more often you get out of bed. As soon as you're ready, you can gradually resume your regular activities. Start with light exercise like walking. Exercise has several advantages, such as better muscular tone, faster recovery, and a happier outlook. Both you and your kid will feel refreshed by the sunshine and fresh air.
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a nurse is assessing a client when she returns from same-day surgery for a dilatation and curettage. the nurse checks preoperative vital signs at 0830 to compare them with the current vital signs at 2230 (see chart). what should the nurse do first?
Cover the customer with warmed robes. A nanny is a person who has entered special training in minding for the ill and injured.
What about nurses' places and liabilities?A person who looks after the sick or the bloodied.A good health- care worker with moxie in promoting and maintaining health who works independently or under the supervision of a croaker, surgeon, or dentist.Compare pukka practical nurse, registered nurse.In order to treat cases and keep them healthy and active, nurses unite with croakers and other healthcare professionals.Also, nursers give end- of- life care and support for bereft family members.They constantly communicate with cases first and, in some cases, are the only healthcare provider they will ever encounter.They help the relatives and communities of the sick, the injured, and the dying while also furnishing care, support, and treatment.Empathy with each case and a genuine attempt to put them in their cases' position are rates of a good nurse.Nursers who demonstrate empathy are more likely to treat their cases as" people" and concentrate on a person- centered care strategy rather than simply adhering to standard procedures.A specified nursing system may be followed with little to no variation to give introductory nursing care, and the case's responses to that care are predictable.Learn more about nurses here:
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maria, age 68, has difficulty managing simple everyday tasks because of the painful swelling of the joints in her hands. what condition is maria likely to be diagnosed with?
Maria must be diagnosed with Arthritis.
What do you mean by disease called arthritis and what are its types?
"Arthritis" literally means joint inflammation. Joints are places where two bones meet, such as your elbow or knee.
There are many different types of arthritis with different causes and treatments. In some types, other organs, such as your eyes, heart, or skin, can also be affected.
Common symptoms of arthritis include pain, redness, heat, and swelling in your joints.
If you have arthritis, it is important for your doctor to diagnose the type of arthritis you have so that you can get the proper treatment. Fortunately, current treatments allow most people with arthritis to lead active and productive lives.
Types of Arthritis:
Ankylosing spondylitis.Gout.Juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Osteoarthritis.Psoriatic arthritis.Reactive arthritis.Rheumatoid arthritis.To know more about arthritis from the given link:
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the nurse plans care for a 3-year-old who was admitted with suspected pertussis infection. which instructions will the nurse include in the plan of care? select all that apply.
The things that a nurse must include in the care plan for a 3-year-old client with suspected pertussis infection are:
Institute droplet precautions.Monitor for signs of airway obstruction.Offer small amounts of fluids frequently.Pertussis infection, or often called whooping cough, is a respiratory tract infection. It's highly contagious but is preventable by vaccine.
The symptoms of whooping cough are usually started by mild symptoms resembling a common cold, such as a runny nose and fever. After a week or two, thick mucus accumulates inside the airways, causing uncontrollable coughing and worsening the symptoms. If let untreated, it may cause abdominal hernias, bruised ribs, and broken blood vessels.
The question above is not complete, but the completed version is as follows:
The nurse plans care for a 3-year-old who was admitted with suspected pertussis infection. Which instructions will the nurse include in the plan of care? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
1. Institute droplet precautions
2. Monitor for signs of airway obstruction
3. Offer small amounts of fluids frequently
4. Place the child in a negative-pressure isolation room.
5. Request an order for a cough suppressant.
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the nurse is appraising the medical record of a pregnant client who is resting in a darkened room and receiving betamethasone and magnesium sulfate. the nurse recognizes the client is being treated for which condition?
This woman has to be watched for the development of eclampsia since she has severe pre eclampsia.
define eclampsia ?
When a woman has pre-eclampsia, it is called eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is one of the hypertensive diseases of pregnancy and manifests as edoema, significant levels of protein in the urine, and other organ dysfunction in addition to its three primary symptoms: new-onset high blood pressure. Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed if high blood pressure appears after 20 weeks of pregnancy or in the second half of pregnancy. It can happen before, during, or after delivery and often happens during the third trimester of pregnancy. The tonic-clonic seizures generally last one minute and are of the tonic-clonic variety. There is either a period of bewilderment or unconsciousness after the seizure. Aspiration pneumonia, cerebral haemorrhage, renal failure, pulmonary edoema, HELLP syndrome, coagulopathy, and placental abruption are some of the other problems.
This woman has to be watched for the development of eclampsia since she has severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulphate is given to patients to relax their skeletal muscles and lower their risk of having a seizure.
They can breathe more easily with the help of betamethasone, which also lowers their risk of experiencing head haemorrhage and increases their likelihood of surviving. Although this medication is often used during pregnancy, the ideal interval between doses is not yet known.
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a patient with a history of bipolar disorder is called by the postpartum support nurse for follow-up. which symptoms would reassure the nurse that the patient is not experiencing a manic episode?
Appetite increases and a lack of interest in activities.
what is bipolar disorder?
Extreme mood swings, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows, are a symptom of bipolar illness, formerly known as manic depression .
The nurse would be reassured that the client is not going through a manic episode if their hunger grew, and they showed little interest in anything. Grandiosity, diminished need for sleep, pressurized speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive engagement in enjoyable activities are at least three of the clinical signs of a manic episode.
The lady displaying signs of a manic episode will probably have a lower level of interest in eating and an increased level of interest in enjoyable activities without consideration for unfavorable outcomes. Clinical signs of a manic episode include strained speech and grandiosity, hyperactivity and distractibility, psychomotor agitation, loss of sleep, and hyperactivity.
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when collecting data on a child diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the child has had weight loss and other symptoms of the disease. the nurse would anticipate which finding in the child's fasting glucose levels?
The nurse would anticipate 240 mg/dL as the child's fasting glucose levels. Diabetes is a disease caused when the pancreas do not produce sufficient insulin.
What is insulin?
Insulin is a peptide hormone. It is produced by beta cells of pancreatic islets that are encoded in humans by a gene called INS gene. It is said to be the body’s main anabolic hormone.
The main purpose of insulin is to regulate the blood sugar levels.
Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy. Then glucose enters the bloodstream. The pancreas then produces insulin, which promotes glucose to enter the body's cells, thereby providing energy.
Insulin is an essential hormone as it is required to create energy.
So, therefore, the nurse would anticipate 240 mg/dL as the child's fasting glucose levels.
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Which of the following words on an ingredient list would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in the product?
a. liquid corn oil
b. peanut oil
c. chicken fat
d. BHA or BHT
e. hydrogenated vegetable oil
Option e. hydrogenated vegetable oil, on an ingredient list would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in the product.
Trans-fatty acids ar factory-made fats created throughout a method known as chemical action, that is geared toward stabilising unsaturated oils to stop them from turning into rancid and to stay them solid at temperature. they'll be significantly dangerous for heart health and will create a risk surely cancers.
Hydrogenated vegetable oils' trans fats are shown to damage heart health. Studies reveal that trans fats will increase levels of lipoprotein (bad) cholesterin whereas decreasing smart alpha-lipoprotein (good) cholesterin, each of that ar risk factors for heart condition.
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when caring for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, the nurse recognizes the importance of minimizing the client's risk for developing which condition?
When caring for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, the nurse recognizes the importance of minimizing the client's risk for developing Posttraumatic stress disorder.
What is post-traumatic disorder?Post-traumatic stress disorder, PSTD is a condition in which an individual who survives a traumatic event continues to suffer the emotional and physical effects of their experience such that the individual is unable to function properly.
Post-traumatic stress disorder has symptoms that include the following:
nightmares or flashbacks,extreme fear of situations that bring back the trauma,heightened reactivity to stimuli,anxiety or depressed mood.Therefore, for a client who is experiencing the symptomology of acute stress disorder, it is important to minimize the client's risk of developing posttraumatic stress disorder as a result of the potential of acute stress disorder to lead to post-traumatic stress disorder.
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you are monitoring the health of a freshwater lake at risk of turning eutrophic due to a recent industrial spill from a local hog farm. what observation would indicate that the eutrophication process has accelerated in the lake?
An increase in aerobic microbes is observed in the lake.
What are aerobic microbes?
An aerobe or an aerobic organism is one that can grow and survive in an oxygenated environment. An anaerobic organism, in contrast, does not need oxygen to survive. Aerobic bacteria cannot survive without oxygen; they require oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor.
Aerobic bacteria are classified as Obligate aerobes, facultative aerobes, and microaerophiles.
Some examples of aerobic bacteria include Citrobacter, Klebsiella, Proteus, Salmonella, Achromobacter Mycobacterium tuberculosis, nocardia sp. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. Coli, etc
So, therefore, an increase in aerobic microbes is observed in the lake.
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a client who had a prostatectomy has learned perineal exercises to gain control of the urinary sphincter. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that he will perform which action as part of these exercises?
Perform the Valsalva maneuver
What is Valsalva maneuver?
The Valsalva maneuver is performed by a forceful attempt of exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing one's mouth and pinching one's nose shut while expelling air out as if blowing up a balloon. Variations of the maneuver can be used either in medical examination as a test of cardiac function and autonomic nervous control of the heart, or to clear the ears and sinuses (that is, to equalize pressure between them) when ambient pressure changes, as in scuba diving, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, or air travel.
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a full term infant is being assessed 12 hours after birth. the infant's respiratory rate is 50 and shallow, with periods of apnea less than 5 seconds. what action by the nurse takes priority?
The nurse's top priority is to keep checking in every 15 minutes.
What is the typical breathing rhythm of a newborn?
Approximately 40 to 60 breaths per minute are typical for a baby. During a baby's nap, this may decrease to 30 to 40 times per minute. Breathing patterns in babies can vary as well. A newborn may take multiple rapid breaths followed by a brief pause of less than 10 seconds before taking another rapid breath.
Healthy newborns should typically breathe shallowly between 30 and 50 times per minute, with brief apneic spells of up to 5 seconds. This baby is showing a typical newborn respiratory condition. The nurse should keep an eye on the baby in every 15 minutes.
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The code OXY in the bottom white quadrant of a label conforming to NFPA 704 indicates that: A. The material will explode on contact with air B. The material is radioactive C. The material can easily release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard D. The material reacts with water
The code OXY in the white bottom quadrant of a label conforming to NFPA 704 indicates that the material can quickly release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard.
What do you understand by term NFPA?Since its founding in 1896, the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has worked to eliminate the death, injury, destruction of property, and economic loss caused by fire, electrical, and related hazards. Through more than 300 consensus codes and standards, research, training, education, outreach, and advocacy, as well as by collaborating with other parties with similar interests in advancing our goal, NFPA disseminates information and expertise. Our goal is to use knowledge, information, and passion to save lives and lessen suffering.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that the code OXY in the white bottom quadrant of a label conforming to NFPA 704 indicates that the material can quickly release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard.
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a client with a gastrostomy tube (gt) receives a prescription for a 250 ml bolus feeding of glucerna60% enteral formula. the nurse should dilute the full-strength formula with how many ml of water?
The nurse should dilute the full-strength formula with 100 ml of water.
What is a gastrostomy tube?
Some children struggle to consume enough food by mouth due to medical conditions. A gastrostomy tube, also known as a G-tube, is a tube that is inserted through the stomach to deliver food directly to the stomach. It's one way doctors can guarantee that picky eaters get the calories and fluids they require. During the quick gastrostomy procedure, a surgeon inserts a G-tube. The G-tube can be left in a child's body for as long as they require it. Gastrostomy (ga-STROSS-teh-mee) patients in children can return to their regular activities fairly quickly after healing.
the nurse should dilute the full-strength formula with 100 ml of water.
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which infants should the nurse recognize as being at higher likelihood for requiring phototherapy? select all that apply.
The infants that the nurse should recognize as being at a higher likelihood of requiring phototherapy are:
babies born before 38 weeks of gestationjaundice in breastfeeding infantsThe correct options are A and C.
What is phototherapy?Phototherapy is the therapeutic process of using light to treat jaundice in babies.
Jaundice is the condition in which the skin, the mucous membranes, and the white part of the eye turn yellow due to an accumulation of the yellow-orange bile pigment known as bilirubin.
Jaundice occurs as a result of the inability of the body to break down bilirubin.
In infants who are born preterm or before 38 weeks as well as some infants that are breastfed during the first few weeks, there is a high risk of jaundice. In preterm infants, the babies do not have a well-developed liver.
During phototherapy, light exposure helps the body to break down bilirubin.
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Complete question:
Which infants should the nurse recognize as being at a higher likelihood of requiring phototherapy? select all that apply.
a. babies born before 38 weeks of gestation
b. babies born after 38 weeks of gestation
c. jaundice in breastfeeding infants
d. babies with congenital heart defect