Genetic variation among humans is relatively small when compared to other species. Where in the human genome does most of the diversity occur?.

Answers

Answer 1

The genetic variations seen in and between populations are known as human genetic variation.

Humans differ genetically from one another. Due to developmental mutations and gene copy-number variation, even monozygotic twins, who arise from a single zygote, may differ genetically. Techniques like genetic fingerprinting rely on individual differences, even between closely related people.

There are 324 million identified variations from sequenced human genomes as of 2017.

A person's genome typically differs from the reference genome by 20 million base pairs, or 0.6% of the total 3.2 billion base pairs, as of 2015.

In contrast to other species, humans are genetically uniform. While a limited number of genetic variations are found more commonly in particular geographic regions or in individuals with ancestry from those places, this variance accounts for the majority of genetic variation.

Genetic variation between populations occurs for at least three reasons. If an allele offers a competitive advantage, natural selection may endow people with an adaptive advantage in a particular environment.

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Related Questions

In the fall, the leaves of some trees change color. This happens because chlorophyll breaks down and the accessory pigments become visible. What hormone is responsible for this?.

Answers

Answer:

Ethylene

Explanation:

Which wells/lanes (A-E; M is the reference well with DNA fragments of known sizes) contain fragments of DNA that are the same size as each other (included all similar fragments)?
What are the approximate sizes of the fragments?

Answers

PS100074 vector in vitro digested using purified Cas9 protein (Cat. No. TP790148) and particular sgRNA. Only when the purified Cas9 protein is combined with a particular sgRNA can it cut the substrate DNA.

The splitting or breaking of DNA strands into pieces is known as DNA fragmentation.

What do you mean by  DNA fragments ?

Cells can do it on purpose, laboratory workers can do it on purpose, or it can happen naturally. DNA fragmentation that occurs accidentally or spontaneously builds up over time in a cell.

The intrinsic causes of sperm DNA fragmentation include insufficient recombination, protamine imbalances, oxidative stress, and abortive apoptosis.Even in oocytes of high quality, sperm DNA fragmentation was inversely linked with blastulation and conception rates. High amounts of DNA damage encourage embryo arrest and cause the apoptotic pathway to be activated.

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White blood cell sub groups are based on ___.
A. Color of stain granules
B. Size
C. Shape and size of nucleus
D. Presence or absence of granules

Answers

White blood cell sub groups are based on Color of stain granules, Shape and size of nucleus, Presence or absence of granules.

How do white blood cells function?Your body's defense against infection is provided by white blood cells, also referred to as leukocytes. White blood cells circulate in your blood and respond to damage or illness as a component of your immune system. Your immune system is fortified by white blood cells. Your white blood cells find the infection site as they move through your bloodstream and tissues, acting as an army general to alert other white blood cells to the infection's location and aiding in the defense of your body against an attack by an unknown organism. Your white blood cell army fights the intruder by creating antibody proteins to adhere to the organism and kill it once they have arrived.

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the timing of a mutation during development has negligible effects on the severity of the genetic defect.

Answers

Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) patients have a malfunctioning mismatch repair system. False; they have a NER flaw. Most oncogenes produce proteins that are involved in signaling pathways that promote cell proliferation.

Which mutations do not affect an organism's ability to survive?

Neutral - Neither the final protein function nor the characteristic are significantly impacted. This has no effect on the organism's survival or general well-being, either positive or negative.

What impact do mutations have on an organism, exactly?

For organisms, mutations can either be helpful, detrimental, or neutral. - An organism can benefit from a change that results from a favorable mutation. - An organism suffers harm as a result of a dangerous mutation. - A impartial.

Question: The timing of a mutation during development has negligible effects on the severity of the genetic defect

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Sea anemones are ocean animals that can reproduce both sexually and asexually. A single sea anemone is located in a stable, isolated environment that is capable of supporting a colony of sea anemones.

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Since the sea anemone lives in a place where the habitat is stable and good for the sea anemone colony, it would be better for the sea anemone to reproduce asexually and produce multiple copies.

They can reproduce asexually, incubating essentially identical twins from a single specimen. This can lead to the formation of a large colony of identical individuals, as can be seen in the local intertidal with the aggregate anemone. They can also reproduce sexually by relay spawning, where fertilization takes place in the water. The resulting larvae then swim around the plankton until they find a suitable place to settle, at which point they metamorphose into a juvenile anemone.

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Why did the population of peppered moths in England change from the light
variation to the dark variation after the Industrial Revolution?
A. The soot from the industrial revolution caused the light peppered
moth to fly away, and only the dark variation was left.
B. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made dark
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the light moths were left.
C. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made white
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the dark moths were left.
D. The industrial revolution did not have an effect on the peppered moth

Answers

Answer:

C. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made white

moths easier to catch by predators, so only the dark moths were left.

Explanation:

This process, known as industrial melanism, is an example of natural selection, in which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time based on their adaptive value.

Classify the hypotheses about the dwarf planet pluto as falsifiable or non-falsifiable. pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen. pluto has an unpleasant climate. pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction. pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.

Answers

Falsifiability at pluto is the capacity for a claim, assertion, theory, or hypothesis to be proven false. That ability is a crucial part of the scientific method and hypothesis testing.

Pluto has a bad atmosphere.

Compared to other nearby minor planets, Pluto's scenery is uninteresting and uninspiring.

Most of the surface of Pluto is composed of frozen nitrogen.

Tidal friction is causing Pluto's orbit to slow down.

What do the terms "falsifiable" and "non-falsifiable" mean?

A falsifiable hypothesis is one that can be disproved using modern technological testing. On the other hand, the non-falsifiable hypothese cannot be disproven hypothesis because testing has shown them to be accurate.

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Pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen.

This hypothesis is falsifiable. It can be tested through direct observation and analysis of Pluto's surface composition. By conducting close-up observations or sending a probe to Pluto, scientists can gather data to determine the composition of its surface and confirm or refute the hypothesis.

Pluto has an unpleasant climate.

This hypothesis is non-falsifiable. The term "unpleasant" is subjective and can vary depending on individual preferences or biases. What one person considers unpleasant, another might find intriguing or fascinating. Without a clear and objective definition of "unpleasant climate," it is not possible to conduct an empirical test to determine its validity.

Pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction.

This hypothesis is falsifiable. Scientists can study Pluto's orbit and collect data on its motion over an extended period. By analyzing the observed changes in its orbit and comparing them to the predictions of gravitational theory, they can evaluate whether tidal friction is causing the orbit to slow down or not.

Pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.

This hypothesis is non-falsifiable. Similar to the second hypothesis, the terms "dull" and "boring" are subjective and dependent on personal interpretation. Different people may have different opinions about what constitutes an interesting or exciting landscape. Without a clear and objective criteria for assessing the dullness or boredom of a landscape, this hypothesis cannot be empirically tested.

In summary, the hypotheses about Pluto can be categorized as follows:

Falsifiable hypotheses:

Pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen.

Pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction.

Non-falsifiable hypotheses:

Pluto has an unpleasant climate.

Pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.

a high-carbohydrate diet: a.is necessarily fattening. b.causes ketosis. is protein-sparing. forces glucose production from protein.

Answers

These diets increase insulin resistance and serum triglyceride levels.

What consequences can a diet high in carbohydrates have?

An excessive intake of carbohydrates puts a heavy metabolic burden on the body. Over time, having high blood sugar levels (the result of digesting eating sugar and starch) causes weight gain, poor metabolic health, and an elevated risk of heart disease.

When should a high-carb diet be followed?

In the week leading up to a strenuous activity, carbohydrates are loaded. Increase your carbohydrate intake to 8 to 12 grams per kilogram of body weight one to three days prior to the event. Reduce your intake of foods higher in fat to make up for the extra foods high in carbohydrates.

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acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ans and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers.

Answers

The statement acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, is true as it performs the function of neurotransmitter.

Within the parasympathetic alone, the postganglionic neuron releases acetylcholine as its number one neurotransmitter. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic, which means they launch acetylcholine (Ach) on the synapse withinside the ganglion.

Acetylcholine is launched via way of means of all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and via way of means of the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers. The ANS stimulates easy muscle tissues, skeletal muscle tissues and glands, while the somatic worried device innervates skeletal muscle tissues only.

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the c ring of fof1 in spinach comprises 14 c subunits. calculate the number of atp produced per fadh2 in spinach

Answers

None; this ATP synthase's mechanism is entirely distinct from that of mitochondrial ATP synthase.

How so many c subunits are there in ATP synthase?

Although the H+/ATP ratio for various ATP synthase complexes can change, with significant implications for the bioenergetic, the number of membrane-embedded ion-binding c subunits vary between animals, ranging from 8 to 17.

Would the C ring in ATP synthase rotate?

Abstract.F1F0 ATP synthases produce ATP by a rotary catalytic process in which H+ transport is connected to the rotation of an oligomeric ring of c subunits that extends through the membrane.At the membrane's core, protons bind to and subsequently are released from the subunit C's aspartyl-61 residue.

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what type of b cell does not secrete many antibodies during a primary immune response, but is very important for a secondary immune response?

Answers

Although effector B cells can start producing antibodies when they are still tiny lymphocytes, the final stage of their development is a big plasma cell.

Which cell promotes the production of antibodies but does not secrete them itself?

Specifically, T-cells

Though they do not secrete antibodies themselves, T-cells do assist B cells in doing so. Two short, or light chains, and two long, or heavy chains, peptide chains make up each antibody molecule. the abbreviation for an antibody is H.L antibodies come in several forms.

What type of B-cell initiates the secondary immune response?

The immune system can more effectively and quickly rid the body of the antigen that was exposed to the individual during the initial invasion during the secondary immune response.

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Drag each tile to the correct location. Categorize the examples of competition between organisms as interspecific or intraspecific. Competition among rams for access to mates competition between argentine ants and native ant species for food competition among red-backed salamanders for territory competition between sharks and orcas for hunting seals.

Answers

Examples of interspecific competition include the fight for food between Argentine ants and other ant species.

Sharks and orcas compete with one another to hunt seals.

Interspecific competition is a sort of conflict involving two or more species, whereas intraspecific competition is a conflict involving several members of the same species. Therefore; instances of intra-specific competitions -

Rams competing for access to mates

Salamanders compete with one another for food sources.

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The type of tissue that transports water and nutrients through a plant is called tissue.

Answers

Xylem tissues are responsible for transporting water and nutrients in plants an they are also known as vascular tissues. They are made with dead cells

A plant's xylem, or vascular tissue, transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant while also offering structural support. Various specialized, water-conducting cells collectively referred to as tracheary components make up xylem tissue. All vascular plants, including the seedless club mosses, ferns, horsetails, all angiosperms and gymnosperms

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What resource should you use to find where the moon cycle is at today?​

Answers

Explanation:

To find out the current phase of the moon, you can use a number of resources, such as a moon phase calendar or an app on your phone. You can also check online websites or local newspapers, which often include information about the current phase of the moon. Additionally, you can look up at the sky and observe the moon to determine its current phase. The moon goes through eight distinct phases, which repeat every 29.5 days, so you can also keep track of the phase of the moon by keeping a lunar calendar or by using a moon phase app.

Which two organ systems interact to produce the sensation of hunger and ingest food in a bird? A. Lymphatic system B. Nervous system C. Respiratory system D. Digestive system ​

Answers

Answer:Digestive System and Nervous System

Explanation: Looking for TWO systems

Why do researchers need a lot of data to monitor a specie population? what trends can you see in the data that you would have missed otherwise?.

Answers

Because there are many distinct species that can be found in different locations, researchers require a lot of data to monitor a specie population.

How do you keep track of population growth?

The vast majority of techniques (which are all varieties of surveys) used to keep tabs on populations often fall into one of three groups: demographic studies, population censuses, and biodiversity inventories.

What techniques are currently being used by scientists to study wildlife populations?

Scientists count animals or use other indirect methods to estimate wildlife populations. Counts are frequently imprecise and involve counting the number of animals in a sample of the study area in order to estimate the total number of animals present.

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g what are the ratios of phenotypes produced in their offspring when the trait is arranged in ascending order?

Answers

3:1 and 1:2:1 are the ratios of phenotypes produced in their offspring when the trait is arranged in ascending order.

The percentage of offspring who display a particular characteristic or collection of traits is referred to as the phenotypic ratio. Based on the genotypes of the progeny, a test cross can be used to determine the frequency of a trait or trait combinations that will express themselves.

Progeny, or the young development of living creatures, can be produced by a single organism or, in the case of sexual reproduction, by two organisms. A brood or progeny, to use a more broad term, is a collective of children.

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which type of symbiotic relationship do the normal microbiota on the surface of your skin have with your body?

Answers

Sweat on the skin's surface hinders.

Why is the typical skin microbiome thought to be advantageous for a person?

Human skin microbiota's defense mechanisms 39 It is generally accepted that colonization of the skin with a balanced or healthy microbiota is advantageous since it is believed to help prevent infections, a process known as colonization resistance.

What purpose does the skin's microbiome serve?

The skin's microbiome supports skin homeostasis and the barrier function of the skin. The desquamation process and stratum corneum renewal are aided by the skin microorganisms' production of protease enzymes. pH management involves the synthesis of sebum and free fatty acids.

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Based on the image, what is the mass of the object being measured?​

Answers

Answer:

we need a picture :)

Explanation:

describe two adaptations mammals have that allow them to protect and nourish their developing embryo and young.

Answers

The mother of a mammal is the only source of nutrition for the embryo.

What specializations do mammals have?

The size and shape of various body parts, thick skins, water-repellent fur, and camouflage are just a few more adaptations that mammals have made to better survive their environment.

How is the embryo cared for and fed?

The term "amniotic sac" refers to the bag with thin walls that surrounds the fetus during pregnancy. The sac is filled with amniotic fluid, which the fetus produces, and membrane that covers the fetal side of the placenta (amnion). As a result, the fetus is protected from injury. Additionally, it helps regulate the fetus's body temperature.

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Indicate whether each statement is true or false regarding primary and secondary responses to an antigen.

Answers

A primary response occurs when an antigens invades the body for the first time. B cells and T cell are activated to generate a response.

Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true?The B cells form plasma cells and memory cells during a primary response.A secondary response is faster than the primary response. When a pathogen invades the body again, the immune system already has memory cells for this pathogen. These memory cells will generate a quick response.During a secondary response, the plasma cells will make more plasma cells and will also make memory cells as the pathogen might invade again.The statement 'a primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells' is TRUE.A primary immune response occurs when lymphocytes are activated after the first recognition of the antigenic harmful material (e.g., a specific piece of protein of a virus).The naive lymphocytes are withe blood cells, i.e., lymphocytes, which have not yet encountered their antigenic material.These cells are activated by antigen-presenting cells, i.e., by dendritic cells and macrophages.When memory cells encounter their antigens again, they proliferate and differentiate to produce plasma cells, thereby a secondary (memory) response is generated.

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i want to be a frog. can i be a frog?

Answers

Answer: yea

Explanation:

Answer:

No

Explanation:

God designed us to be humans

Genesis 1:27

So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.

The forces exerted on an object are shown.

A box has an arrow pointing right labeled F and an arrow pointing left labeled 8 N.

If the object moves left, which statement is correct about force F?

It is equal to 8 N.
It is equal to 10 N.
It is less than 8 N.
It is greater than 10 N.

Answers

Answer:

It is less than 8N

Explanation:

If the object moves left, the force on the left side must be greater, otherwise it would either stay still or move to the right

long ago, people thought that the smallpox virus could be carried through the air. for this reason, many people moved from crowded cities to the more open country during smallpox epidemics, carrying with them family members who had the virus but had not yet contracted the disease. when the pox erupted on these family members, other members living in the home soon contracted the disease too. which of these was then discovered to be the means of transmission?

Answers

Long ago, people thought that the smallpox virus could be carried through the air directly contacting a person with smallpox.

Earlier smallpox changed into eliminated, and it changed into a serious infectious sickness due to the variola virus. It was contagious—that means, it unfold from one man or woman to other. People who had smallpox had a fever and a special, progressive skin rash.

The final evidently happening case of smallpox became suggested in 1977. In 1980, the world fitness organization declared that smallpox was eliminated. Presently, there may be no proof of obviously taking place smallpox transmission everywhere around the globe.

The rash looks like red bumps that steadily fill with a milky fluid. The fluid-stuffed bumps are all within the same level at the same time, in comparison to chickenpox, where the skin blisters are in different degrees of look with a mix of blisters, bumps, and crusted lesions at a given time.

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Lesson 1.2.2
Time of death
Temperature Measurements
How do you convert from Celsius to Fahrenheit? Convert each from Celsius to Fahrenheit
Answer:
0℃ 32 20℃ 68 50 ℃ 122
How will your team make it’s water bath & what does its water bath represent? To how many ℉ is 37℃ equal? What does the hot dog in the 37℃ water bath represent?
Answer: Answer:

Answers

To convert temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius, one has to subtract 32 and multiply by .5556 (or 5/9).

To convert temperatures in degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply by 1.8 (or 9/5) and add 32.

How to calculate the temperature?

The physical concept of temperature expresses in numerical form how hot or cold something is. A thermometer is used to measure temperature.

The average kinetic energy of the particles inside an object is what determines its temperature, which is a way of expressing how hot or cold something is.

In this case, 37°C to Fahrenheit will be:

= (37 × 1.8) + 32

= 98.6° F

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why are enteric bacteria such as escherichia coli, are common meat contaminants?

Answers

why are enteric bacteria such as escherichia coli, are common meat contaminants .As a result of the slaughter and processing of cattle, Escherichia coli bacteria can infect meat.

There is a larger risk of infection in ground beef since it contains animal flesh from several different species. pristine milk. E. coli bacteria from the udder of the cow or from the milking equipment can contaminate raw milk.

Escherichia coli (E. coli) germs often live in both human and animal intestines. Most strains of E. coli are harmless, and they actually serve an essential part in preserving the wellbeing of the human gastrointestinal system. But some strains of E. coli are pathogenic, meaning they can make people ill by giving them diarrhea or by giving them illnesses that don't originate in the digestive system. Infected food or water, interaction with people or animals, or contaminated food or water are all ways that E. coli strains that can cause diarrhea can spread.

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Both gasoline and olive oil are largely made of carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms. In these bonds, the electrons are shared fairly equally by the atoms. Why do you think these two substances are able to mix?.

Answers

Gasoline and olive oil are non-polar substances that mix well, as a non-polar compound will dissolve another non-polar compound well.

The chemical formula of gasoline is C8H18. Olive oil consists mainly of oleic acid, linoleic acid, palmitic acid and mixed triglyceride esters of other fatty acids, with traces of squalene (up to 0.7%) and sterols (about 0.2% of phytosterols and tocosterols). Whether two substances are miscible is often determined by how polar or non-polar the two substances are. Polar substances, because of the shape and nature of the molecules they are made of, have regions of different electrical charge. Like batteries that have positive and negative poles, sometimes atoms have parts that are either negatively or positively charged. Polar molecules are molecules that have either positively or negatively charged ends. Non-polar substances have a uniform, neutral electrical charge in all parts of the molecule. Non-polar molecules have no positive or negative regions. Because polar molecules have both negatively and positively charged regions, they mix well with other polar molecules.

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here is a hypothetical mrna sequence: 5' c g g a u g c g u a a a u a g 3' what is the amino acid sequence encoded by this mrna?

Answers

This putative mRNA sequence, 5' c g g a u g c g u a a u a g 3', will yield the amino acid sequence Met-Leu-Val.

What distinguishes mRNA and siRNA from one another?

Small interfering RNA, often known as siRNA, is a synthetic RNA sequence that is identical to the mRNA sequence. When this siRNA is delivered into cells, it attaches to the mRNA sequence and prevents translation by starting the mRNA's decomposition.

What components make up amino acids?

A carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group, an amino group, and a variable group are the main structural components of amino acids. Four categories of amino acids can be distinguished based on the variable group.

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Most of the energy released in citric acid cycle reactions is conserved in ________.

Answers

Answer:

The tricarboxylic acid (TCA)

Explanation:

The tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, also known as the Krebs or citric acid cycle, is the main source of energy for cells and an important part of aerobic respiration. The cycle harnesses the available chemical energy of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) into the reducing power of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH).

It is conserved in NADH

Why would Dr. Nancy Wexler, look at family pedigree charts of the people of Lake Maracaibo as a starting point for her search for the Huntington gene?​

Answers

Answer:

Hi let me put it in this way

Explanation:

Dr. Nancy Wexler likely used family pedigree charts as a starting point for her search for the Huntington gene because they provide a visual representation of the genetic relationships within a family. By looking at the family pedigree charts of the people of Lake Maracaibo, Dr. Wexler could see how the Huntington gene was inherited within families, which would help her identify patterns and possible risk factors for developing Huntington's disease. In addition, looking at family pedigree charts could help Dr. Wexler identify families with a high incidence of Huntington's disease, which would be a useful starting point for her research. By using these charts as a starting point, Dr. Wexler could more efficiently and effectively begin her search for the Huntington gene.

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