Property of the genetic code that lowers the chances of a deleterious mutation in an individual : Redundancy
What do you understand by redundancy?Two or more genes that are performing the same function and that inactivation of one of these genes has no effect on the biological phenotype is called genetic redundancy. Redundancy is very common in in genomes of higher organisms.
Genetic code is said to be redundant when the same amino acid residue is encode by multiple codons. If all the properties of synonymous codons are entirely equivalent, then they would be equally distributed along the protein coding sequences.
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A student analyzes a cross section of earths layers.
Which letter corresponds to a trench in the cross section?
1. L
2. M
3. N
4. O
Answer:
o
Explanation:
Letter M corresponds to a trench in the cross section of earth layers. Therefore, option (B) is correct.
What is a trench?Subduction is a geophysical process in which two or more of the Earth's tectonic plates converge, and the older, denser plate is pushed beneath the lighter plate and deep into the mantle, causing the seafloor and outermost crust (the lithosphere) to bend and form a steep, V-shaped depression.
These regions, which are known as deep sea trenches, have depths that are nearly three times greater than the typical depth of the sea bottom. The trench zones are distinguished by total obscurity as well as unfathomable pressures that can reach up to 16,000 pounds per square inch.
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according to research studies, multi-partner fertility (mpf) is more common among mothers who .
Mothers who are expecting their first child extremely late in life frequently suffer from MPF. Metaphase-inducing cell cycle regulatory element that can be injected into amphibian eggs
Does MPF aid in DNA condensation?Once activated, MPF causes chromosomal condensation by phosphorylating condensin, nuclear lamina dissolution by phosphorylating lamin proteins, endomembrane system organelle disintegration by phosphorylating GM130, and mitotic spindle formation by phosphorylating a number of targets.
How are MPFs governed?Cyclin B and the protein kinase Cdc2 make form the dimer known as MPF. Additional research has shown that Cdc2's phosphorylation and dephosphorylation regulate MPF and that cyclin B plays a role in these processes. Cyclin B production in mammalian cells starts during the S phase.
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Dna replication proceeds outward from two , which are the sites where the template strands are unwound and new dna is synthesized.
DNA replication proceeds outward from two replication forks, which are the sites where the template strands unwinds and new DNA is synthesized.
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is one amongst the two nucleic acids in living organisms. DNA is the more prevalent form because it is more stable than RNA. The structure of DNA is a double stranded molecules with nitrogenous bases projecting inwards perpendicularly.
Replication forks are the Y-shaped structures present in the DNA. These are the open bubble where the DNA unwinds with the help of enzymes in order to initiate the process pf DNA replication.
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Frank lloyd wright’s fallingwater house is best described as an example _______. a. of a private residence becoming publicly important b. of modern houses and architecture c. of a private residence d. of waterfalls and natural scenery please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Frank Lloyd wright’s Fallingwater house is best described as an example of a private residence becoming publicly important.
Option A. of a private residence becoming publicly important.
Frank Lloyd Wright's Fallingwater residence is high-quality described for instance as a private house turning into publicly critical.
Frank Lloyd Wright first became recognized for his Prairie fashion of structure which included low-pitched roofs, overhanging eaves, a relevant chimney, and open-ground plans which, he believed turned into the antidote to the restricted, closed-in structure of the Victorian era.
Falling water is a house designed by means of architect Frank Lloyd Wright in 1935 in rural southwestern Pennsylvania. The residence become designated a country-wide historic Landmark in 1966.
In 1893, Frank Lloyd Wright based his architectural practice in alrightPark, a quiet, semi-rural village on the Western edges of Chicago. It become at his alrightPark Studio throughout the first decade of the 20th century that Wright pioneered an ambitious new method of domestic architecture, the Prairie fashion.
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approximately how many more mammal species become extinct in the period 1901-2000 than became extinct in the period 1801-1900?
90 mammal species become extinct in the period 1901-2000 than became extinct in the period 1801-1900.
Extinction is a situation in which something no longer exists. Their can be many reasons associated like species have been hunted to the point of extinction, scarcity of food or natural disasters.
Their are two main types of extinction firstly Mass extinction that has occurred only five times in history. The other is Background extinctions which occurs over longer period of time and are considered important in natural extinction rate.
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A eukaryotic transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that.
A eukaryotic transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids in mRNA, there are a sizable number of noncoding nucleotide regions.
The complicated process of eukaryotic transcription is used by eukaryotic cells to transform the genetic material found in DNA into copies of transportable complementary RNA. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are both capable of transcription from genes.
Because the other nucleotides are introns that are deleted from mRNA after transcription and are not used in the protein, a transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may only use 1,200 of those nucleotides to code for a protein that contains 400 amino acids.
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photosynthesis is an example of a chemical reaction because: select one: a. exergonic; energy is released by the reaction center b. exergonic; light energy is captured by pigment molecules c. endergonic; light energy is used to build chemical bonds d. endergonic; the reactions occur inside a cell
Photosynthesis is an example of a chemical reaction because: c.) endergonic; light energy is used to build chemical bonds.
What is endergonic reaction?An endergonic reaction requires free energy to proceed and example of an endergonic reaction is photosynthesis. Photosynthetic organisms perform the reaction using solar photons to drive the reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose and oxidation of water to oxygen.
Photosynthesis starts with molecules of water and carbon dioxide. When light is added, then molecules break apart to rearrange into new molecules of glucose and oxygen.
Photosynthesis is an endergonic reaction because plants cannot start the photosynthesis until they absorb light energy. Chlorophyll absorbs the light energy, which is used for the photosynthesis reaction to occur.
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How is continental crust different from oceanic crust? question 5 options: continental crust is more dense and lighter. continental crust is thicker and more likely to sink. oceanic crust is thinner and more likely to sink. oceanic crust is thicker and more dense.
In comparison to oceanic crust, which is typically 5-10 km thick, continental crust is often 20–70 km thick. Oceanic crust is more recent and has a density of 3 g/cm3, whereas continental crust is older and less dense (2.7 g/cm3).
What distinguishes the oceanic crust from the continental crust?When compared to oceanic crust, which is basaltic (i.e., richer in iron and magnesium than granite) and has a density of around 2.9 to 3 grammes per cubic cm, continental crust is generally granitic and has a density of about 2.7 grammes per cubic cm.
Is crust from the oceans denser than crust from land?Dark-colored rocks known as basalt and gabbro make up the majority of the oceanic crust. It is lighter-colored rocks called andesite and granite that make up the continental crust, which is thinner and denser. Because of its low density, continental crust "floats" high above the viscous mantle, forming dry land.
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pax6 gene regulates development of the eye across many species. you want to identify a mouse eye enhancer by making a gfp reporter in which the gfp coding sequence is placed downstream of a mouse promoter. which region of mouse dna would you fuse to the gfp reporter to identify the eye enhancer?
The GFP reporter is going to bind to the target cells in order to identify the eye enhancer.
Reporter genes are genes that get attached to regulatory sequences. The regulatory sequences control the expression of the reporter gene in the same manner that the original gene is controlled. It is cloned with any DNA sequence which we require into an expression vector that is then transferred into cells. These cells in question are the target cells. Reporter genes are a good tool for studying molecular events in living subjects.
When the GFP reporter gene is going to go and binds to the target cells, these cells are then going to identify and monitor the activity of the enhancer.
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Affecting both areas of the lungs, often including one or more sections, or lobes, of a lung.
The air sacs are filled with pus and other liquid during this acute infection. One or more lung lobes can become infected with lobar pneumonia. In both lungs, areas of both are impacted by bronchial pneumonia, also called bronchopneumonia.
In which lobes does pneumonia occur?Upper, middle, or lower lobe pneumonia are the terms used to describe the pneumonia depending on which lung lobe is involved. The term focal pneumonia is used when there are several multi-lobe localised inflammations in the lungs. If the focused inflammations began in inflamed airways, some people refer to them as bronchopneumonia (bronchi).
How is lung disease referred to?The most widespread lung ailments include: Asthma. partial or complete lung collapse (pneumothorax or atelectasis) Swelling and inflammation in the bronchial tubes, the major passageways.
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a scientist is evaluating the hemoglobin in mountain goats compared to the hemoglobin in normal barnyard goats. how will the hemoglobin in these two goat species compare? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices given that mountain goats tend to live at higher altitudes, these goats will have hemoglobin with a greater oxygen-binding affinity compared to the hemoglobin of barnyard goats. as these are both goat species, mountain goats and barnyard goats will have the same type of hemoglobin (with the same binding affinity for oxygen). given that barnyard goats tend to live at lower altitudes, these goats will have hemoglobin with a greater oxygen-binding affinity compared to the hemoglobin of mountain goats. given that mountain goats tend to live at higher altitudes, hemoglobin in these goats will have more heme groups than the hemoglobin of barnyard goats. given that barnyard goats tend to live at lower altitudes, hemoglobin in these goats will have more heme groups than the hemoglobin of mountain goats.
These goats will have haemoglobin that is more capable of binding oxygen than barnyard goat haemoglobin.
What is the primary advantage of blood having haemoglobin?Your blood's haemoglobin helps carry oxygen from your lungs to your tissues. In muscle cells, myoglobin receives, transports, stores, and releases oxygen.
What occurs when the blood's haemoglobin levels rise?High haemoglobin levels can cause symptoms such as weariness, bruising easily, and dizziness. Your doctor may advise treatment to get rid of extra red blood cells from your blood depending on the underlying reason of excessive haemoglobin. A medical expert from Cleveland Clinic last examined it on 06/20/2022.
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What is true about changes to biotic factors in an ecosystem?
Responses
It doesn't affect the living parts of an ecosystem.
It can result in populations of organisms increasing.
It results in changes to salinity or temperature.
It affects food chains but not the overall food web.
Answer:
It results in changes to salinity or temperature
Explanation:
Biotic things have to do with non living things that affect an ecosystem and if a biotic factor is changed like the sun it will affect the ecosystem so if the sun is taken away It results in changes to salinity or temperature
which of the following is true about the evolution of archaea? answer archaea are more closely related to the eukarya domain than the bacteria domain archaea are more closely related to the bacteria domain than the eukarya domain archaea are equally related to the bacteria and eukarya domain i don't know yet
The true statement about archaea domain is: archaea are more closely related to the eukarya domain than the bacteria domain.
The archaea domain is composed of microorganisms that are not found in normal environments. Instead they are found in extreme and harsh habitats like hotsprings, saline environment, acidic conditions, etc. The example of organisms of archaea domain are Methanococcus, Pyrolobus, etc.
Eukarya is the most advanced domain which is comprised of organisms made of eukaryotic cells. The organisms of eukarya can be both unicellular or multicellular. The examples are: plants, animals, humans, etc. Microorganisms like fungi and algae also belong to eukarya.
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Help me please!!!!!!!!!!
Answer: B maybe
Explanation: what grade are you in
a testcross is performed on an individual to examine three linked genes. the most frequent phenotypes of the progeny were abc and abc, and the least frequent phenotypes were abc and abc. what was the genotype of the heterozygous individual that is test-crossed with the correct order of the three genes?
The heterozygous person who was test-crossed with the right combination of the three genes has the genotype BaC/bAc.
What would be the most accurate unit to use to gauge the separation between two connected genes along a chromosome?A centiMorgan is a unit of measurement used to approximation genetic distance along chromosomes (also known as genetic map unit (mu) [94]). The geneticist Thomas Morgan and his student Alfred Sturtevant are credited with coming up with the term [95].
Do two genes have to be on different chromosomes for recombination to occur 50% of the time quizlet? Why or why not.No, two genes on the same chromosome will be connected and the frequency of recombination will be less than 50%.
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the mass of dna per nucleus in a certain fungus ranges from 4 to 10 picograms. nuclei with 5 picograms of dna are most likely derived from cells in which of the following parts of the cell cycle?
The nuclei with 5 picograms of DNA are most likely extracted from cells in the c) G1 phase of the cell cycle.
The G1 phase is the first phase of the cell cycle, during which the cell grows and performs all the metabolic functions necessary for cell division. This phase is also known as the gap phase because it is the period of time between the end of cell division and the beginning of DNA replication.
The G1 phase typically lasts for about 10-12 hours in most cells. During this phase, the cell grows in size and synthesizes all the proteins and other molecules needed for DNA replication.
The cell also replicates its organelles, so that each daughter cell will have a complete set. Finally, the cell checks its DNA to make sure it is intact and ready for replication. If the DNA is damaged, the cell may enter a special checkpoint where it can repair the damage or, if the damage is too severe, the cell may undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death).
Hence the correct option is c).
The complete question is,
the mass of DNA per nucleus in a certain fungus ranges from 4 to 10 picograms. nuclei with 5 picograms of DNA are most likely derived from cells in which of the following parts of the cell cycle?
a)Early M
b) G2
c) G1
d) Late S
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What is evolution?
When an individual develops the traits
needed to survive and reproduce
An immediate change in a population as
a result of environmental demands
When a population stays the same
reguarless of environmental demands
When a population changes as a result
of natural selection which is driven by
environmental demands
Answer:
When an individual develops the traits
needed to survive and reproduce
Explanation:
the second option is wrong because evolution isn't an immediate change but takes thousands to millions of years depending on what is evolving.
The third option is close but the difference is natural selection is when weaker animals of a species die out while the stronger ones survive for example, when one bird hatches before the other the hatched bird may push the egg out of the nest to get more food. That is an example of natural selection. It is a part of evolution but not evolution itself.
if you keep a steady weight, your hormones . multiple choice question. are blocked from influencing your body's calorie usage maintain a separation between your food intake and energy output of approximately 2,000 calories are actively trying to increase your calorie intake and decrease your energy expenditure maintain your food intake and energy expenditure to within 10 calories of each other
If you keep a steady weight, your hormones: maintain your food intake and energy expenditure to within 10 calories of each other.
Hormones are the chemical messengers of the body. These are the compounds that are released from one organ of the body but their site of action is different. That is the reason why they are called messengers. Hormones are essential for the body's growth and development.
Energy is the most essential component to carry out the various processes of the body. The most commonly used form of energy is ATP. It gives off energy by the hydrolysis of its phosphate bonds. The energy inside the body is measured in the unit called calories.
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How much more atp is generated from glucose 6-phosphate, compared to glucose, when it is metabolized by the glycolytic pathway?.
2 ATPs are generated from glucose 6-phosphate during the glycolytic pathway.
The glycolysis pathway, which is a series of enzyme-mediated steps, is used to metabolize G6-P in the cytoplasm of the cell. The first step of glycolysis is the isomerization of glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) into fructose-6-phosphate, which creates triose-phosphate and two pyruvate molecules as well as a small amount of ATP (net gain of 2 ATP molecules). The majority of ATP is then produced by the aerobic oxidation of pyruvate in differentiated cells. Although glucose is frequently regarded as the primary energy source for cells, it is actually primarily a major supply of carbon skeletons for cell growth and survival. Indeed, under some circumstances, particularly during prolonged fasting or during cell proliferation, glucose oxidation to CO₂ to provide energy should be avoided to allow the delivery of essential functions.
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What is the advantage of the branching design of the bronchioles on our lungs into 700 million alveoli?
Your lungs' principal airways (bronchi) split into bronchioles, which are progressively smaller passageways that join to tiny air sacs (alveoli).
The lungs have a high surface area to volume ratio due to the many and tiny size of the alveoli. This removes the constraints often imposed by the concomitant increase in size and weight of the gas exchange system, allowing animals to grow to considerably bigger sizes.
What about lungs?Respiration, a process of gas exchange, is the major purpose of the lungs (or breathing).Carbon dioxide, a waste product of metabolism, leaves the blood during breathing while oxygen from the incoming air enters. Reduced lung function refers to the lungs' diminished capacity to exchange gasses. When you breathe in and out, you may have lung pain on one or both sides of your chest. Technically, because the lungs have so few pain receptors, the discomfort isn't emanating from inside them. Instead, the lining of the lungs, which does include pain receptors, might be the source of the discomfort.Networks of intricate tubes that make up our two lungs are hung on each side of the heart in the chest cavity by a support system formed of elastic fibers. The nose serves as an air filter by capturing dust particles on its hairs as it draws air in through the mouth and other openings. Most people can survive, if necessary, with one lung as opposed to two. Unless the other lung is destroyed, one lung can often produce adequate oxygen and eliminate enough carbon dioxide. The surgeon creates an incision on the side of your body during a pneumonectomy.Learn more about lungs here:
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Dicu how croing-over lead to greater variability of phenotype. Give an example to help explain your anwer
In Crossing-over, a part of the chromosome will be exchanged with another part in phenotype.
Crossover provides for the exchange of DNA sequences between homologous chromosomes during meiosis. This process forms a new arrangement of the genetic information stored on the maternal and paternal chromosomes. New combinations of genes residing on the same chromosome increase the genetic diversity of offspring, making them different from their parents.
For example, one chromosome contains two mutated genes of hers that affect a particular trait in an organism. Without crossbreeding, both mutated genes are passed on to offspring. However, the process of crossover can segregate genes between two homologous chromosomes. Since only one of the homologous chromosomes is inherited from one parent, the odds of inheriting both mutated genes are reduced and the offspring will have only one mutated gene of hers.
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which trait is commonly found in both of these two groups: chondrichthyans (cartilaginous fishes) and osteichthyans (bony fishes).
Breathe via the gills. Fish with bones and fish with cartilage both have jaws in their mouths.
Describe the chondrichthyans and Osteichthyes.Chondrichthyes:
The second category of fish is the Class Chondrichthyes, which contains sharks, rays, and chimaeras. Sharks are among the oldest fish species to have a jaw. Their upper and lower jaws are made of cartilage. A shark can grow teeth indefinitely, but neither you nor I can have more than two sets. Because they regularly replace lost or damaged teeth with brand-new ones, sharks never run out of teeth.
Osteichthyes:
The Osteichthyes, or true bony fish, are the third major category of fish and are further classified into two divisions. The first class, known as the Sarcopterygii, is the more ape-like of the two classes. This class includes all terrestrial vertebrates, including cows and humans, as well as fish like coelacanths and lungfish.
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patella baja refers to a patella that sits in a more superior position than normal question 26 options: true false
The statement that patella baja refers to a patella that sits in a more superior position than normal is false.
Patella is also called the kneecap. It is the largest sesamoid bone present in the human body. The structure of the patella is flat, rounded and triangular that articulates with the femur bone. The function of the patella is to protect the knee joint.
Patella baja is the condition of the knee cap where it becomes mower than the normal. It can arise due to varying reasons like ongenital, acquired, or a combination of the two. Patella baja is also known by the name patella infera.
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Which of the following approaches is the most likely first method an apple grower would use in developing an orchard of short trees producing apples from a naturally tall parent stock?
a. reduce nutrients in the soil to inhibit growth
b. prune the trees severely to maintain a short height
c. graft buds from the tall parent stock onto the dwarf-tree rootstock
d. breed trees from the shortest plants in the dwarf-tree rootstock
The method used to grow short trees from tall parent stock is to graft bud parent stock onto the dwarf tree, hence option c is correct.
What are graft buds?The base and roots of a grafted plant are known as rootstock. In order to produce a new plant with better characteristics, the apple grower grafted onto the scion, which is the blooming or fruiting portion of the plant.
A plant cutting used in grafting is referred to as a scion, and it joins with another plant, known as the rootstock. By uniting the tissues of two distinct plants, grafting allows them to grow together.
Therefore grafting buds to dwarf-tree rootstock is a method, hence option c is correct.
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Dna replication relies on the blank______ of dna strands according to the blank______ rule.
DNA replication relies on the ___complementarity___ of DNA strands according to the ___AT/GC___ rule.
Define DNA replication.DNA replication is the process by which genomic DNA is copied into cells. Before a cell can divide, it must first copy (or replicate) its entire genome so that each resulting daughter cell has its own complete genome. This is a semi-conservative process, meaning that each new copy of DNA contains one parent strand and one new strand of the original DNA. Replication is an essential process because each time a cell divides, the two new daughter cells must contain the same genetic information or DNA as the parent cell. It is found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and the nucleoid region of prokaryotic cells. DNA replication occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle before cell division
The principle of complementarity governs both transcription and DNA replication due to the fact that when two DNA or RNA sequences are arranged antiparallel to each other, the nucleotide bases at each position in the sequences are complementary or mirror images.
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in protein synthesis, eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells show similarities in all of the following except the
In protein synthesis, eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells show similarities in all of the following except the number of proteins encoded on a single mRNA. The first amino acid, formyl-methionine.
Which aspects of protein synthesis in eukaryotes and prokaryotes are similar and different?In prokaryotes, mRNA is polycistronic and may contain several genes that are translated to produce a number of proteins. Each monoisotopic (only one gene and one protein) mRNA in eukaryotes carries a single gene.
Eukaryotic and prokaryotic proteins are synthesized by 80S and 70S ribosomes, respectively. Eukaryotes' cytoplasm is where protein synthesis takes place. Before the transcription of an mRNA molecule is finished, protein synthesis takes place in prokaryotes.
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which of the following is not a major function of protein in the human body?
A. Synthesis of hormones
B. Growth and maintenance of new tissue
C. Maintaining fluid balance
D. Providing energy to the body
Answer: D
Explanation:
you are carrying out a chromatin immunopreciptation experiment. at the step where you are supposed to add the antibody to your protein of interest, you accidentally add a mixture of antibodies that someone was storing in the lab. what will your results show?
The results of the chromatin immunoprecipitation experiment are that the DNA will still be isolated, but it will respond to DNA that was bound by any protein recognized by the antibody.
Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) may be a sort of immunoprecipitation test procedure utilized to investigate the interaction between proteins and DNA within the cell.
ChIP too points to deciding the particular area within the genome that different histone alterations are associated with, demonstrating the target of the histone modifiers.
It points to deciding whether particular proteins are related to particular genomic locales, such as translation variables on promoters or other DNA authoritative locales, and possibly define cistromes.
ChIP is vital for the headways within the field of epigenomics and for learning more about epigenetic marvels.
Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) could be a strategy utilized to decide the area of DNA authoritative locales on the genome for a specific protein of intrigue.
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In 3-5 sentences, describe the advantages and disadvantages of using these two different images to model Mitosis.
The advantage of the first model is it used less space for showing stages of mitosis whereas the disadvantage of using this model in Mitosis is that it does not provide detailed information.
What is mitosis cell division?Mitosis is a process of cell division in cells that occurs when a parent cell divides to form two identical daughter cells. During this cell division, diploid daughter cells are produced from a single parent cell while on the other hand, meiosis is a process of cell division in cells that happens when a parent cell divides to form four identical daughter cells. Meiosis refers to the formation of four cells from a single parent having haploid chromosomes. The advantage of the first model is that it provides stages of mitosis by using less space whereas the disadvantage of using this model Mitosis is that it does not provide detailed information. The advantage of the second model is that it does not provide detailed information whereas the disadvantage of using this model of Mitosis is that it provides stages of mitosis by using less space.
So we can conclude that the advantage of the first model is the disadvantage of the second model and vice versa.
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The main disadvantage of using the first image to model mitosis is the presence of other stages of the cell cycle (e.g. the S phase). Moreover, the disadvantage of using the second image to model mitosis refers it involves meiotic division (meiosis II division) instead of mitosis.
What is the mitosis process?The expression of the mitosis process makes reference to this type of cell division which is characterized to form two daughter cells with identical genetic material when compared to the parental cell.
In contrast, meiosis divides to half the amount of genetic material in the resulting daughter cell as occurs in the second image.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the mitosis process is the cell division for which a cell generates two daughter cells that exhibit identical genetic material when compared to the parental cell, conversely to meiosis where this number is reduced to half.
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wear on the cuboid and medial malleolus bones suggest what about the victim
It is implied that the cuboid and medial malleolus bones were worn because the victim was wearing very high heels. High heels can either cause or exacerbate many foot ailments because they exert a lot of pressure on the ball of the foot and squeeze the toes into a small toe box.
One of the five bones in the midfoot, the cuboid is one of the seven bones that make up the tarsus of the ankle and foot. The toes, which tend to contract more when wearing heels, can also experience additional strain. However, a lot of the discomfort is caused by tiny intermetatarsal nerves that run between the foot's bones; these nerves swell and become irritated when wearing heels.
Thus, it is implied that the victim's wearing very high heels caused the wear on the cuboid and medial malleolus bones.
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