The expanded segment of the spinal cord, where nerves that serve the shoulder and upper limbs exit is known as cervical enlargement.
What is spinal cord?The spinal cord is an extension of the central nervous system (CNS), which consists of the brain and spinal cord. The spinal cord begins at the lower part of the brainstem (the area of the medulla oblongata) and ends at the waist where it tapers to form a cone called the spinal cord cone. It is a long cylindrical structure that connects the brain to the waist. It contains tissues, fluids, and nerve cells. A bony spine surrounds and protects the spinal cord. The spinal cord helps carry electrical nerve signals throughout the body.
The spinal cord and spinal column are divided into four regions from top to bottom:
Cervical Thoracic Lumbar SacralAn injury to the upper part of the spinal cord can paralyze most of the body and affect all limbs (called quadriplegia). A lower spinal cord injury can lead to leg and lower body paralysis (called paraplegia).
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In the lac operon, lactose is a/an __________ and in trp operon tryptophan is a/an __________.
In the lac operon, lactose is an Inducible operon and in trp operon tryptophan is a Repressor operon.
For the transport and metabolism of lactose in E. coli and many other enteric bacteria, the lactose operon is a crucial operon. In E. coli and other bacteria, the lac operon is an operon or a collection of genes with a single promoter that codes for genes involved in lactose transport and metabolism. An inducible operon is the lac operon. Inducible operons are typically inactive and only activate in the presence of an inducer (lactose).
A repressor protein that binds to two tryptophan molecules activates the trp operon. The gene expression of the enzymes required to manufacture tryptophan is controlled by the tryptophan operon.
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the two most basic steps of dna replication are
Explanation:
The initiation of DNA replication occurs in two steps. First, a so-called initiator protein unwinds a short stretch of the DNA double helix. Then, a protein known as helicase attaches to and breaks apart the hydrogen bonds between the bases on the DNA strands, thereby pulling apart the two strands.
Which of the following host defenses is considered the most effective in combating S. aureus infection?
Phagocytic response is considered the most effective host defenses in combating S. aureus infection.
What is phagocytic response?Phagocytosis is a type of cell response that plays a key role in the course of an immune response as well as in the remodeling of tissues and the healing of wounds. Professional phagocytes are specialized cells that can carry out this task quite effectively.
What is S. aureus infection?It has long been known that S. aureus is one of the most significant germs that harm humans. It is the main contributor to skin and soft tissue infections such cellulitis, furuncles, and abscesses (boils). Boils are the most typical staph infection form. This is a pus-filled pocket that forms in an oil gland or hair follicle. Typically, the skin around the infected area turns red and swells. To treat staph infections, doctors frequently administer cefazolin, nafcillin, oxacillin, vancomycin, daptomycin, and linezolid. Vancomycin may be necessary for staph infections that are severe. This is due to the fact that a large number of staph bacterium strains have developed resistance to other common antibiotics.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that phagocytic response is considered the most effective host defenses in combating S. aureus infection.
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What causes the differentiation of blood stem cells into new cells with different shapes and functions?.
Signaling mechanisms cause the differentiation of blood stem cells into new cells with different shapes and functions.
A cell just needs to modify the genes (and consequently the proteins) that will be expressed in order for it to differentiate into its specific form and function. Transcription factors are the main process by which genes are turned "on" or "off." Cellular interactions with the surrounding matrix, growth and differentiation factors, and other environmental factors that temporally and spatially activate or inhibit cellular signaling pathways and the transcription of particular genes drive this complex process.
Pluripotent cells called embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can differentiate as a result of signaling pathways. Most growth factors, cytokines, and epigenetic processes including DNA methylation and chromatin remodeling tightly regulate them.
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DNA Sequence CCT CTT TAC ACA CGG AGG GTA CGC TAT TCT ATG ATT ACA CGG TTG CGA TCC ATA ATC
Create an mRNA sequence from the above DNA sequence
An mRNA sequence from the given DNA sequence is GGA GAA AUG UGU GCC UCC CAU GCG AUA AGA UAC UAA UGU GCC AAC GCU AGG UAU UAG.
DNA consists of two types of strands. One is the coding strand and the other is the template strand. The coding strand is not transcribed to mRNA and is directed in a 3' to 5' direction. The template strand is transcribed to mRNA and is directed in a 5' to 3' direction.
Here, consider the given strand as a template strand. Our mRNA strand will be complementary to this strand. Instead of thymine, mRNA will have uracil.
According to genetic code, the nucleotides in the sequence are arranged into three codes called codons in mRNA.
Therefore,
DNA sequence: CCT CTT TAC ACA CGG AGG GTA CGC TAT TCT ATG ATT ACA CGG TTG CGA TCC ATA ATC
mRNA sequence: GGA GAA AUG UGU GCC UCC CAU GCG AUA AGA UAC UAA UGU GCC AAC GCU AGG UAU UAG
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Can someone help me with this?
Decomposition
Displacement
Synthesis
Elimination
Answer:
displacement reaction
Explanation:
because in the chemical equation CuSO4+Mg, Cu and Mg switch places so the equation is now MgSO4+Cu. This is an example of a single replacement because only one pair of elements switch with each other
global sea level during the mid-cretaceous was over 200 m higher than today, reducing the total land size and increasing the rate of extinction of land-animal species. what caused this increase in the sea level?
The cause of this increase in the sea level is Increased rates of seafloor spreading
What happens to cretaceous when sea level increase ?The most well-studied mass extinction, which occurred 66 million years ago at the beginning of the Paleogene and the Cretaceous epochs, wiped out the nonavian dinosaurs and cleared the way for the rapid diversification and evolution of mammals and birds.
The "Big Five" extinctions are most well-known for the end-Cretaceous event, which saw the extinction of all dinosaurs except for birds. Additionally, it gave mammals opportunities. Dinosaurs ruled all land habitats during the Mesozoic Era.Contrary to earlier extinction events that were brought on by natural phenomena, the sixth mass extinction is being caused by human activity, particularly (though not exclusively) the unsustainable use of land, water, and energy, as well as climate change.Learn more about Cretaceous here:
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cyamids suddenly suffer a widespread population drop. what effect will this have on right whales?
Cyamids suddenly suffer a widespread population drop Yosemite.
These small crustaceans also referred to as whale lice or cyamids, feed on the whales' pores and skin. Incapable of swimming or surviving inside the open water, they tour from one whale to another by direct contact.\
Whale Cyamids are outside parasites that stay at the frame floor of such marine mammals as whales, dolphins, and porpoises. They take shelter in pores and skin lesions, genital folds, nostrils, eyes, and different external orifices, feeding on host tissue or fluid secretions.
While hitching a trip, these crustaceans munch on algae and whale pores and skin. although that might sound like an undesirable scenario for a whale, a few researchers believe there is no proof that whale lice are unfavorable to whales, and accordingly have extra commensal dating with their hosts, like barnacles.
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they started with e. coli that had been growing for many generations in medium containing 15n. they then transferred the bacteria into medium containing only 14n, and allowed the bacteria to undergo two rounds of dna replication. after each round of replication, the scientists performed density-gradient centrifugation of the dna. the scientists reasoned that each of the three models would predict different dna banding patterns after the two rounds of replication. can you identify the banding patterns predicted by each model after the first round of replication? (then, in part c, you will identify the banding patterns predicted after the second round of replication.)
The conservative model predicts different results after one replication round, while the dispersive and semiconservative models predict the same outcomes.
After being moved from 15N15N media to 14N14N medium, E. coil cells are allowed to continue to grow for two generations. These cells' DNA is ultracentrifuged in a gradient of cesium chloride density. Due to the semiconservative structure of DNA, both N isotopes will be present in the products or genomes produced after two generations. One low and one middle density band will therefore be visible in the density distribution.
Since nitrogen is a key component of DNA, Meselson and Stahl used the 14N and 15N isotopes as sources of nitrogen in the culture medium in their experiment. Furthermore, the heavier 15N isotope of nitrogen, which is by far the most prevalent, is also functional in DNA.
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After transformation of e. Coli with pglo, why are the cells grown in lb broth for 20 minutes before plating on amp plates?.
After transformation of E.Coli with pGLO, It takes 20 minutes to transcribe and translate the Green Fluorescent Protein.
Before RNA polymerase can bind to the Arabinose promoter, it must wait at least 20 minutes. There is a 20-minute phenotypic lag before the b-lactamase gene for Amp resistance can be expressed. The pGLO plasmid contains a gene (bla or ampR) encoding a protein known as -lactamase, which hydrolyzes antibiotics with a-lactam ring and renders host cells resistant to compounds such as ampicillin. The pGLO Lab Kits make use of Bio-pGLO Rad's plasmid, which encodes a green fluorescent protein (GFP), to give instructors a hands-on introduction to transformation, cloning, protein chromatography, and electrophoresis techniques. The pGLO plasmid contains the following genes: GFP, bla, Ori (origin of replication), araC, pBAD promoter, and a region with multiple cloning sites.
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Dna replication begins at a site called the origin of replication, forming a bubble, which is followed by a __________, where parental strands are unwound by __________.
DNA replication begins at a site called the origin of replication, forming a bubble, which is followed by a replication fork, where parental strands are unwound by helicases.
Each time a cell divides, the two resulting daughter cells must contain the same genetic information, or DNA, as the parent cell. To accomplish this, each strand of existing DNA acts as a template for replication.
Replication occurs in three major steps: the opening of the double helix and the separation of the DNA strands, the priming of the template strand, and the assembly of the new DNA segment.
DNA helicases catalyze the disruption of the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of double-stranded DNA together. The replication fork is a multiprotein complex with helicase and DNA synthesis activities.
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excess acetyl coa that accumulates during fat breakdown is modified in the liver by which of the following pathways?
Acetyl-CoA builds up in the liver, where it mixes with other substances to create ketone bodies through a process called ketogenesis. Insufficient insulin production by the pancreas characterizes Type I diabetes mellitus.
Within 30 minutes after eating a meal containing carbohydrates, blood sugar levels increase. Acetyl CoA is redirected to produce ketone bodies if too much acetyl CoA is produced during the oxidation of fatty acids and the Krebs cycle is overburdened and unable to manage it. If the body's glucose levels are too low, these ketone bodies can act as a fuel source. A molecule known as acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A) is involved in a variety of metabolic processes in the metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.
High levels of nucleocytosolic acetyl-CoA are indicative of a "growth" or "fed" state and encourage its use for histone acetylation and lipid synthesis.
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the cribriform plate supports the - the terminus of the - and is perforated by numerous for the passage of the branches of the . b. olfactory bulbs of cn 01 i. are olfactory bulbs seated superior or inferior to the cribriform plate? ii. zoom in to see the projections on the inferior surface of the bulbs. (tip: you may need to hide the ethmoid bone to see them well.) iii. within each bulb, axons of olfactory form synapses with dendrites and cell bodies of other . iv. if you are attempting to view the olfactory bulbs on a preserved specimen, they may be missing or incomplete. why do you think this is? c. olfactory tracts of cn 01 - olfactory tracts are formed by axons/dendrites (circle one). d. lateral stria of cn 01 - follow this tract to see which region of the brain it terminates in: e. medial stria of cn 01 - follow this tract to see which region of the brain it terminates in: f. signals transmitted along the olfactory tracts terminate in the area in the lobe of the cerebral cortex. 3. based on your learning, how do you think damage to this nerve would present clinically? 4. what
The cribriform plate, that is pierced by several passageways of a (b) olfactory bulbs, serves as support for it (ii). View a protrusion on the underside of the bulbs by zooming in.
What is cribriform plate ?At the skull base, on the ethmoid bone, is the cribriform plate. The most inferior part of the skull is referred to as the the skull's base. It is made up of pieces of the temporal bone, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, ethmoid bone, and frontal bone. The cribriform plate, also known as the horizontally lamina and lamina cribrosa in mammals, is a component of the ethmoid bone. It is taken up by the frontal bone's ethmoidal notch and ceilings of the nasal cavities. It support the olfactory bulb and has olfactory foramina that allow the olfactory nerve to pass through and reach the roof of a nasal cavity, where they transmit smell to the brain. While a foramina just at lateral portion of the groove transmit nerves to a superior nasal concha, those who are at the middle portion of the groove allow nerves to travel to the upper section of the nasal septum.
Where is the cribriform plate and what function is it associated with?The anterior cavity as well as the nasal cavity are separated by a structure like a sieve called the cribriform plate, which is also often referred to as the laminar cribrosa of such ethmoid bone. The olfactory bulb, that is located in the olfactory fossa, is supported by this ethmoid bone component. The olfactory nerves which carry the smell sense are transmitted by this bones, the cribriform plate.
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The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the.
The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, diencephalon .
Brainstem is the bottom, stalklike portion of your brain. It connects your mind on your spinal cord. Your brainstem sends messages to the rest of your body to adjust stability, respiration, heart price and greater. surprising accidents, and mind or coronary heart situations may additionally have an effect on how your brainstem w
The brainstem (mind stem) is the distal a part of the mind that is made up of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. every of the 3 components has its very own specific structure and feature. collectively, they assist to adjust respiratory, coronary heart price, blood stress, and several other critical features.
A brain stem damage can purpose dizziness or lack of motor feature, with extra severe instances resulting in paralysis, coma, or dying. remedy can be extraordinarily pricey, and plenty of sufferers are not able to paintings whilst handling a mind stem harm.
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you have discovered a new enzyme, but when you isolate it for further study, it does not work properly. what might have been lost?
You have discovered a new enzyme, but when you isolate it for further study, it does not work properly. The coenzyme have been lost.
What is a coenzyme?
A coenzyme is classified as an organic molecule that combines to the active locations of an enzyme and helps to catalyze the chemical reaction rate.
More specifically, coenzymes function as electron carriers or for transferring hydrogen during chemical reactions.
For example, nicotineamideadenine dinucleotide, and flavin adenine dinucleotide are coenzymes.
Simply put, coenzymes are non-proteins that are attached to the enzymes as intermediate carriers and act as catalysts to speed up the rate of reaction.
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Which organ system is responsible for making sure blood flows to the whole body?.
The organ system responsible for ensuring the flow of blood throughout the body is the circulatory system.
What is the circulatory system?
The circulatory system (cardiovascular system) pumps blood from the heart to the lungs to get oxygen. The heart then sends oxygenated blood through the arteries throughout the body. Veins carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart to start the circulation process.
The heart is a vital organ of the circulatory system. The function of the heart in the circulation process is to pump blood throughout the body. The heart cooperates with the blood vessels in the circulation process. Blood vessels have the role of circulating blood to and from the heart.
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Which statement is FALSE?
-When the open promoter complex is formed, sigma 1.1 is displaced from DNA channel and replaced by DNA.
-As bent DNA template is in the RNAP active site, it presses on the sigma 3.2 domain, thus releasing it from the holoenzyme.
-As DNA enters the channel in the RNAP active site, it begins to bend 90 degrees and melt as the strands open up close to start of transcription.
-In the free holoenzyme of bacterial RNAP, the N-terminal domain of sigma-70 blocks DNA channel by mimicking interaction with DNA.
As bent DNA template is in the RNAP active site, it presses on the sigma 3.2 domain, thus releasing it from the holoenzyme is wrong among other statements.
What is RNAP active site?During transcript elongation, RNA polymerase II may become halted, in which case the ternary complex is unaffected but additional RNA synthesis is prevented. The emerging transcript needs to be split off at the 3' end in order to release arrest.
Transcription continues from the freshly exposed 3' end as 7–17 nt RNAs are freed. The transcript cleavage reaction is substantially stimulated by factor SII, which boosts elongation efficiency. Here, we demonstrate how the addition of pyrophosphate can likewise result in the release of an arrest.
The same set of cleavage products are formed as by factor SII, but those produced by pyrophosphate have termini that are 5'-triphosphate.
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The external brain structure found between the pre-central gyrus and the post-central gyrus is the.
The primary motor cortex would be located in the cerebral hemisphere, which would be rostral to the central sulcus. The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus, which would be caudal towards the central sulcus.
On the medial portion of the hemisphere, the central sulcus frequently extends for a little distance. The paracentral lobule is a physical structure formed by the medial expansions of the precentral as well as postcentral gyri, which are located anteriorly and posteriorly to it.
The cerebral hemispheres, the cerebellum, as well as the caudal or medullary region of the brainstem were the three main components that can be seen in most images of the human brain.
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5. Which organism is gaining the most energy in this pyramid?
6. Which organism is gaining the least energy in this pyramid?
7. How much energy is available to the snake?
In the given pyramid of energy, the organism gaining most energy is plants, the organism gaining least energy is eagle and according to the 10% rule of energy, the snake will have only 10% of the total energy of rat.
Pyramid of energy is the diagrammatic representation of the transfer of energy at each trophic level in a food chain. The pyramid of energy is always upright. This is because the organism at the lowermost level has the maximum energy and the organism at the topmost level will have the least.
10% rule of energy transfer states that only 10 % of the total energy is transferred from one organism to another during a food chain. The organism at first trophic level, i.e. plants will also be able to absorb only 10% of the total sun's energy. Similarly rat will have only 10 % of energy available to it because the rest gets lost in respiration, digestion, in the form of heat, etc.
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1.
2.
3.
going across
i’m confused please help :(
Leukocytes, thrombocytes, and erythrocytes are seen in the provided image. Thrombocytes, often known as platelets, help to clot blood. Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, are crucial for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Leukocytes, or white blood cells, also have a significant impact on the immune system.
Blood cells come in three main categories: erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets). Leukocytes are the primary cellular immune system components that contribute to the body's defence against invading pathogens, while Thrombocytes are involved in the blood clotting process that prevents excessive bleeding. Erythrocytes fulfil the oxygen needs of all cells during the transportation process. Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Thrombocytes differ mostly in this way.
Leukocytes, thrombocytes, and erythrocytes can thus be identified as the first, second, and third cell types in the provided image, respectively.
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An individual with the genotype aabb makes gametes. An individual with the genotype aabb also makes gametes. How many gamete types do they have in common with respect to these two genes?.
An individual with the genotype AaBB and an individual with the genotype AaBb both make gametes. 2 types of gametes they have in common with respect to these two genes.
A dihybrid cross is a mating experiment between two organisms that are genetically identical in two ways. A heterozygous hybrid organism is one that carries two different alleles at a specific genetic position, or locus. Mendel used a dihybrid cross to combine two opposing traits, such as the color and shape of seeds, for crossing. He crossed the wrinkled-green seed with the round-yellow seed. In the F1 generation, he only got round-yellow seeds.
The term F1 generation refers to the offspring produced by a cross between two different types.
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1. What is the most astonishing forces on earth?
The strong nuclear force, additionally known as the robust nuclear interaction, is the most powerful of the 4 essential forces of nature. It's 6 thousand trillion trillion trillion (it truly is 39 zeroes after 6!) instances more potent than the pressure of gravity.
The nuclear pressure is a pressure that acts among the protons and neutrons of atoms. The nuclear pressure is the pressure that binds the protons and neutrons in a nucleus together. This pressure can exist among protons and protons, neutrons and protons or neutrons and neutrons. This pressure is what holds the nucleus together.
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What precautions or steps can a phlebotomist take to limit their exposure to blood-borne pathogens?.
The precautions to be taken by phlebotomist to limit their exposure to blood-borne pathogens are: wearing personal protective equipment such as safety glasses, gloves and laboratory coats. In case of cuts or abrasions on the skin of hands, cover them with adhesive dressing.
Phlebotomist is a healthcare worker who performs phlebotomy. Phlebotomy is the process of performing a puncture in a vein, usually in the arm, with a cannula so as to extract blood so that certain tests can be performed.
Blood-borne pathogens are the harmful microorganisms that reside in the blood of living organisms and cause diseases. The most common examples of such pathogens are: HIV, HBV, HCV, etc.
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Explain the relationship between a P and S wave that makes
it possible to determine the location of an earthquake focus.
How is the focus location determined?
Answer:Use the time difference between the arrival of the P and S waves to estimate the distance from the earthquake to the station.
Explanation:
based on the data and observations obtained by your lab group and your working group, identify the optimal solvent to separate the food dye. purpose and explanation for why the chosen solvent was the bet
The vast majority of synthetic food colors are excellent candidates for CE (CAPILLARY ELECTROPHORESIS) separation. This is because they frequently include sulfonic acid or carboxylic acid functional groups, which at alkaline pH generate negatively charged colored ions, giving a unique chromophore for selective detection.
CAPILLARY ELECTROPHORESIS:
Synthetic food dyes are frequently used to improve the look of meals and have several advantages over natural colorings, including being brighter, more stable, less expensive, and accessible in a wider range of hues. However, the revelation of some food colors' harmful effects has resulted in a substantial decrease in the range of synthetic colors that are approved food additives in certain regions of the world. The vast majority of synthetic food colors are excellent candidates for CE separation. This is because they frequently include sulfonic acid or carboxylic acid functional groups, which at alkaline pH generate negatively charged colored ions, giving a unique chromophore for selective detection. However, their examination is complicated by the fact that many food colors contain a combination of components rather than a single chemical species. Although documented techniques are less common, CE has been used to analyze natural colors such as caramels, which are classified into four unique groups based on the reactants utilized during sugar caramelization. In fact, CE analysis can be used to identify and quantify the type of caramel in a sample.
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What kind of change results from the breakdown of starch into glucose by saliva?.
Chemical change results from the breakdown of starch into glucose by saliva.
Chemical changes occur when one substance combines with another to form a new substance, which is known as chemical synthesis, or when two or more different substances combine to form a new substance, which is known as chemical decomposition. These processes are known as chemical reactions, and they are generally irreversible except through further chemical reactions. Chemical changes include burning, cooking, rusting, and rotting.
Important chemical reactions in biological systems include: Water and CO2 combine to form glucose and oxygen. The process of converting glucose into carbon dioxide and water. Oxyhaemoglobin is formed by the reaction of haemoglobin and oxygen.
Amylases break down starch into smaller molecules, producing maltose, which is then cleaved into two glucose molecules by maltase.
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: crispr-cas9 may be used as a gene-editing tool to repair mutant genes (such as the gene that causes huntington's disease in humans). this technique has been used in bacteria, mice, and even human embryos. first, crispr-cas9 is used to target and remove the mutant gene. second, naturally occurring repair enzymes will add the wild-type gene into the gap left from the site where the mutant gene was removed. which of these bacterial repair mechanisms would most likely be responsible for repairing the dna when used to edit bacterial genes? choose one: a. nucleotide excision b. methyl mismatch repair c. base excision d. umudc translesion bypass synthesis in sos e. reca recombination repair
The majority of DNA damage is repaired by removing the harmed bases and then resynthesising the excised area.
Briefing:
However, some DNA lesions can be directly reversed, which may be a more effective method of handling some types of DNA damage that happen frequently.
The three major types of polymerases found in prokaryotes are known as DNA pol I, DNA pol II, and DNA pol III. DNA pol III is now understood to be the enzyme needed for DNA synthesis, whereas DNA pol I and DNA pol II are mainly needed for repair.
In order for the cells to repair the DNA damage, at least five major DNA repair pathways—base excision repair (BER), nucleotide excision repair (NER), mismatch repair (MMR), homologous recombination (HR), and non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)—are active at various times during the cell cycle.
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How do bonds form between atoms?
What Is a Chemical Bond?
A chemical bond is a force of attraction between atoms or ions. Bonds form when atoms share or transfer valence electrons. Valence electrons are the electrons in the outer energy level of an atom that may be involved in chemical interactions. Valence electrons- electrons furthest from the nucleus, are the basis of all chemical bonds.
Question: How do bonds form between atoms?
Sharing or transferring neutrons
Sharing or transferring electrons
Sharing or transferring protons
Earth experienced a ‘global warming’ event 55 million years ago. What is the likely cause of the final, dramatic pulse of warming during this time?.
The greenhouse gases were the major cause of the ‘global warming’ event 55 million years ago.
Over 55 million years ago, as a result of human lives being developed, major greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide began to expand on the Earth. This caused a dramatic change in the Earth's conditions causing global warming.
Greenhouse gases are gases that are harmful to the earth and damage it. The greenhouse gases also increase the temperature of the earth hence making it unsuitable for living conditions. One of the leading causes of global warming is the emission of greenhouse gases.
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an antigen-antibody reaction, also known as an immune reaction, involves: the binding of antigens to allergens the binding of antibodies to allergens the binding of antigens to antibodies the binding of allergens to antibiotics submit
An antigen-antibody reaction additionally referred to as an immune response the binding of antigens to antibodies.
Option C is the binding of antigens to antibodies.
The antigens and antibodies combine through a method known as agglutination. it's by far the essential reaction in the body through which the frame is blanketed from complex foreign molecules, including pathogens and their chemical pollutants.
The antibody binds to unique antigens. This indicates the alternative cells of the immune machine to put off the invading microbes. The electricity of binding between the antibody and an antigen at a single binding website is known as the antibody's affinity for the antigen.
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