Answer:
The extra parts of the immune response in vertebrates that are adaptations to intracellular pathogens are the production of antibodies, the activation of the complement system, and the production of interferon.
Select four flowering plants.
tiger lily
pine tree
fir tree
pear tree
fig tree
cedar tree
cactus
Answer: The correct choices are:
tiger lily
cactus
pear tree
cedar tree
Explanation: These answers have been confirmed correct.
What is the function of the dendrites?
a) They carry impulses towards the cell body.
b) They carry impulses away from the cell body.
c) They carry information into and out of the brain stem.
d) They carry motor and sensory signals between the spinal cord and the boc
Answer:
No C
Explanation:
they carry information into and out of the brain stem.
I hope it helps.
Which of the following arrangements would yield the greatest reduction in gamete viability?
A. An inversion homozygote for a small inversion
B. An inversion heterozygote for a large inversion
C. An inversion homozygote for a large inversion
D. An inversion heterozygote for a small inversion
An inversion heterozygote for a large inversion
In order for the chromosomal pairs to line up during meiosis, an inversion heterozygote must create a loop with one chromosome. Note that the term "heterozygote" used here refers to chromosomes rather than genes. Even with an inversion heterozygote, all of its genes could still be homozygous. Due to the loss of half of their gametes, inversion heterozygotes do not have as high a level of fitness (underdominance) as non-inverted people.
More genes will be duplicated or deleted when there is a crossing over if the heterozygous inversion is big. In the majority of pericentric inversion heterozygote carriers with balanced rearrangement, there is no phenotypic effect. The homologous chromosomes in an inversion heterozygote pair gene by gene and form a loop configuration that can be seen at pachytene if the inverted region is large enough.
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in the process of carbon fixation, rubp attaches a co2 to produce a six-carbon molecule, which is then split to produce two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. after phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (g3p), what more needs to happen to complete the calvin cycle? in the process of carbon fixation, rubp attaches a co2 to produce a six-carbon molecule, which is then split to produce two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. after phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (g3p), what more needs to happen to complete the calvin cycle? regeneration of atp from adp addition of a pair of electrons from nadph regeneration of rubp regeneration of nadp
Regeneration of rubisco. This ensures that the cycle continues to take place and continue to fix CO2.
What is carbon fixation ?RuBP and CO2 react, and RuBisCO catalyses the formation of a six-carbon compound that is quickly split into two three-carbon compounds. Because CO2 is "fixed" into organic molecules during this process from its inorganic form, it is known as carbon fixation.
The fixation reaction is catalysed by an enzyme called RuBisCO, which combines RuBP and CO2. The resulting six-carbon compound is split into two three-carbon compounds, which are then transformed into G3P by ATP and NADPH using their stored energy.RuBP and CO2 react through the catalysis of RuBisCO. Three molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA) are created for each CO2 molecule that interacts with one RuBP molecule. 3-PGA contains one phosphate and three carbons. One RuBP and one carbon dioxide are all that are needed for each cycle turn to produce two 3-PGA molecules.Learn more about Carbon fixation here:
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taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the pacific yew tree. in animal cells, taxol prevents microtubule depolymerization, which interferes with which of the following processes?
A. the mitotic spindle
B. chromosome condensation
C. centriole duplication
D. cytokinesis
Answer:
Im Not 100% Sure But I'd Say Option:A "The Mitotic Spindle"
Explanation:
Worth A Try Hoped I HElped!
can be defined as an interaction between organisms or species, in which the fitness of one is lowered indirectly by the presence of another due to limited resource such as food, water, and space.
This type of inetraction between organisms called intraspecific completetion.
Intraspecific competition is competition between individuals of the same species (interspecies). The impact of competition on each individual within a species depends on the type of competition taking place. "Competition-competition" can be passive or active, with different results.
For example, two male birds of the same species may compete for mates at the same location. This type of competition is a fundamental element of natural selection. It leads to the development of better adaptations within the species.
A species is a group of organisms made up of similar individuals whose genes can be exchanged or interbred. Species is the primary natural taxonomic unit, ranked under the genus and represented by the Latin binomial.
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what is the ratio of dominate to recessive phenotypes likely to result from this cross?
2:2
0:4
4:0
0:2
If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, then a cross between AaBb x AaBb, would be give you a ratio of 9:3:3:1, this has because this is a dihybrid cross. That is both parents are heterogenous for both traits and therefore the ratio of the phenotypes will be 9:3:3;1.. This is an example of independent assortment.
What is gene?
The term "gene" has been known as the variety of meanings in the subject biology. The molecular gene has the sequence of the nucleotides in the DNA that has transcribed to form the functional RNA, whereas the Mendelian gene has the fundamental unit of inheritance.
Genes in the different chromosomes has been assort independently during meiosis. Genes that has very close together in the same chromosome has been linked.
Therefore, If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, then a cross between AaBb x AaBb, would be give you a ratio of 9:3:3:1, this has because this is a dihybrid cross. That is both parents are heterogenous for both traits and therefore the ratio of the phenotypes will be 9:3:3;1.. This is an example of independent assortment.
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the gene for enzyme transposase is carried by
Answer:
The gene for enzyme transposase is carried by a plasmid.
Projections of loose connective tissue from the dermis, which extend upward between the adjacent ridges of the epidermis, are called.
Papillae, also known as dermal papillae, are projections of loose connective tissue from the dermis that rise upward between the surrounding epidermal ridges.
What do the dermal projections of free connective tissue represent?Loose areolar connective tissue makes up the papillary portion of the dermis. Its finger-like extensions, known as papillae, which reach toward the epidermis and contain terminal networks of blood capillaries, gave rise to its name.
What kind of connective tissue comprises the skin's dermis?Deep beneath the epidermis and lying on top of the subcutaneous fat layer is the dermis, a layer of connective tissue with mesenchymal origin. [1] The dermis is mostly fibrous in composition and is made up of elastic and collagen fibres.
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Giant tube worms living near vents on the ocean floor do not have a functioning intestine. Instead they have a modified gut full of bacteria that provide the worms with carbohydrates. What is the energy that the bacteria use to make the carbohydrates?.
In giant tube worms, symbiotic bacteria are housed in an organ called a trophosome. Because the symbiotic bacteria dwelling in the trophosome may supply organic nutrients and other chemicals for energy and growth, this organ replaces its digestive system.
Instead of having a mouth, a gut, or an anus, the worms obtain their sustenance from symbiotic bacteria that use hydrogen sulfide and energy to fix carbon to produce the food that the worm consumes.
Red plumes that resemble feathers on the tubeworms serve as gills, taking in oxygen from the sea and hydrogen sulfide from vent fluids. They can do this because of a unique form of hemoglobin in their blood that can carry oxygen and sulfide simultaneously (human hemoglobin transports only oxygen).
So, we can define a trophosome as an organ that houses symbiotic bacteria in tube worms. The symbiotic bacteria can produce organic nutrients and other compounds for energy and growth.
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Which of the following terms associated with transcription describe regions of nucleic acid?
a. terminator
b. gene
c. promoter
Promotor, gene, terminator are all 3 phrases/terms related to transcription. Promoters and terminators are stretches of DNA upstream and downstream (respectively) of genes that manage each the fee at which the gene is transcribed and the fee at which mRNA is degraded.
As a result, each of those factors manage internet protein expression from a artificial construct. The terminator series in DNA includes a 20 basepair GC-wealthy area of dyad symmetry observed through a quick poly-A tract or "A stretch" that is transcribed to shape the terminating hairpin and a 7–nine nucleotide "U tract" respectively. This is the area this is transcribed through RNA polymerase, additionally referred to as the RNA coding area. As defined below, it can consist of introns, sequences which are eliminated from the mature RNA molecule throughout RNA processing.
The transcribed area is demarcated through promoter and terminator sequences. A promoter is a area of DNA wherein RNA polymerase starts offevolved to transcribe a gene. Normally, promoter sequences are generally placed at once upstream or on the 5′ quit of the transcription initiation site.
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19. What type of energy is stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules?
kinetic energy
Gravitational energy
electrical energy
Chemical energy
Protons moving across the thylakoid membrane participate in atp production by _______________________________________.
Answer:moving through ATP synthase and providing free energy
Explanation:
An ecologist makes a list of every species known to exist in an ecosystem. Which type of biodiversity is he/she studying?
Responses
ecosystem diversity
genetic diversity
species diversity
biosphere diversity
Dr. Ara B. Dopsis and Dr. C. Ellie Gans are performing genetic crosses on daisy plants. They self-fertilize a blueflowered daisy and grow 100 progeny plants that consist of 55 blue-flowered plants, 22 purple-flowered plants, and 23 white-flowered plants. Dr. Dopsis believes this is the result of segregation of two alleles at one locus and that the progeny ratio is 1:2:1. Dr. Gans thinks the progeny phenotypes are the result of two epistatic genes and that the ratio is 9:3:4.
The two scientists ask you to resolve their conflict by performing chi-square analysis on the data for both proposed genetic mechanisms:
1. Calculate the chi-square value for hypothesis of segregation of two alleles at one locus.
2. Calculate the chi-square value for hypothesis of interaction of two epistatic genes.
3. Based on chi-square analysis, what is your conclusion regarding these two genetic hypotheses?
4. Based on chi-square analysis, what is your conclusion regarding these two genetic hypotheses?
a. Hypothesis of segregation of two alleles at one locus can be rejected.
b. Hypothesis of interaction of two epistatic genes can be rejected.
c. Neither hypothesis can be rejected.
d. Both hypotheses can be rejected
1. The blue color flower is self-crossed with each other and gives rise to 100 progenies.
2. Out of 10p progeny 22 are purple 55 are blue color and 23 are white color.
3. When the gene shows segregation the chi-square value is as:-
So, the Chi-square value is 1.02 for the hypothesis of the segregation of two alleles.
4. When genes show epistatic:
So, the chi-square value for the hypothesis of the interaction of the twp epistatic gene is 0.750.
The statistic is used in genetics to indicate whether there are deviations from the expected outcome of alleles within a population. A common assumption in statistical tests is that there is no significant difference between the measured and predicted results. Epistasis is determined by the self-progeny of F2 animals. Gene B is epistatic to gene A if animals of phenotype A produce offspring of phenotypes A and B, and animals of phenotype B produce only offspring of phenotype B.
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When you consider causes of behavior, which of the following are correctly matched? Ultimate causes? Proximate causes?
Ultimate causes: an evolutionary explanation for behavior.
Proximate causes: mechanisms that underlie behavior
In terms of the influences of evolution, ultimate causation explains features.
As an illustration, female animals frequently show preferences for male display features, including songs. The most conclusive theory is that females who exhibit preferences have more virulent or more handsome male progeny.
In terms of direct physiological or environmental elements, proximate causation describes how biological processes work.
Example: In a mate choice trial, a female animal decides to mate with a specific male. One theory for the closest explanation is that one male produced a stronger signal, which caused the female to have higher hormone levels and exhibit copulatory behavior.
Although the behavior in these two examples is the same, the explanations are based on several reasons, some of which are evolutionary and some of which are physiological.
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lipolysis increases when which of the following are released: 1) cortisol, 2) epinephrine and norepinephrine, 3) glucagon, 4) growth hormone.lipolysis increases when which of the following are released: 1) cortisol, 2) epinephrine and norepinephrine, 3) glucagon, 4) growth hormone.
Lipolysis increases when the following hormone is released (1) cortisol.
Lipolysis is the process of breakdown of lipids triglycerides. In this process, the triacylglycerols breakdown by the phenomenon of hydrolysis into their monomeric units glycerol and free fatty acids. The process can happen in all cell types, but the white and brown adipose tissues are more prominent for lipolysis.
Cortisol is a hormone also known as the stress hormone. It is steroidal in nature. The adrenal glands are responsible for the secretion of these hormones. It elevates the blood pressure of the body and also enhances the energy levels.
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Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?a. Potassium
b. Glucose
c. Protein
d. Red blood cells
Answer:
d. Red blood cells is the correct answer
All of the following will cause DNA replication to occur faster except for ___?
A.) More DNA polymerases
B.) More helicases
C.) More nucleotides
Which letter is it? A, B, or C?
All of the following will cause DNA replication to occur faster except for More helicases.
Numerous DNA polymerase enzymes are working simultaneously to duplicate the complete DNA at all of the various replication forks in the various replication bubbles in order to hasten the process. Two exact copies are the outcome.
The rate of eukaryotic human DNA replication is 50 nucleotides per second. Because several polymerases can create two new strands at once utilizing each unwinding strand from the original DNA double helix as a template, replication happens so swiftly in both circumstances.
One strand from the parent strand and one recently synthesized daughter strand are present in every new piece of DNA. Semiconservative replication is the term for this.
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Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages.
Because they provide novel gene sequences to their host bacterium, lysogenic bacteriophages increase the pathogenicity of bacteria.
What distinguishes lysogenic bacteriophages from lytic ones?The phage replicates during the lytic cycle before lysing the host cell. Phage DNA enters the host genome during the lysogenic cycle and is passed on to next generations. The prophage may excise and enter the lytic cycle as a result of environmental stressors including hunger or exposure to hazardous substances.
What kind of virus qualifies as lysogenic?The (lambda) virus, which infects the E. coli bacterium, is a prime example of a lysogenic bacteriophage. Sometimes viruses that infect plant or animal cells experience infections when they stop generating virions for a considerable amount of time.
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Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages can carry and transfer virulence genes to the bacterial host. When a bacteriophage infects a bacterium and integrates its genetic material into the bacterial chromosome, the resulting lysogen (bacterium with integrated phage DNA) can carry additional genes that encode virulence factors.
Virulence factors are molecules or proteins that enhance the ability of a bacterium to cause disease in a host organism. These factors might include toxins, adhesion proteins, immune evasion molecules, or other elements that help the bacterium establish infection and evade the host's immune responses.
When a lysogenic bacteriophage carries virulence genes, it effectively turns a harmless or less virulent bacterium into a more pathogenic one. This phenomenon has been observed in several bacterial pathogens, such as the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera. In these cases, the presence of lysogenic phages can significantly increase the severity of the disease caused by the bacteria.
Overall, lysogenic bacteriophages play a crucial role in bacterial evolution and adaptation to their environments, including their interactions with hosts and their ability to cause disease.
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how can you describe deep sea trench
what are two types of motor functions of the nervous system
Answer:
Explanation:
Voluntary- control movement in the somatic nervous system which controls skeletal muscle. Autonomic nervous system controls effectors that are involuntary such as cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and various glands.
The compounds α-D-fructofuranose and β-D-fructofuranose are ________.
A) enantiomers
B) mutamers
C) anomers
D) conformational isomers
The compound of α-D- fructofuranose and β-D-fructofuranose are anomers. Correct option is (C).
A new chiral center is created at the site of the conversion of a molecule like glucose into a cyclic form C-1. The new chiral center (C-1) is produced by the anomeric carbon, which is identified by its chemical structure. Anomers are an exception; they are epimers with only the anomeric carbon varying in configuration.
An example of an anomer is -D-glucose and -D-glucose.
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Suppose that your pressure gauge for determining the blood pressure of a patient measured absolute pressure p instead of gauge pressure. How would you write the normal value of systolic blood pressure, 120 mmhg, in such a case?.
The value of the systolic blood pressure is -640 mmHg. The pressure gauge measures the absolute pressure.
Blood pressure is known as the pressure of blood against the wall of the arteries. Systolic blood pressure indicates how much pressure the blood is exerting against the artery walls when the heart beats pumping blood out. Systolic blood pressure is the top number of the blood pressure reading.
According to the question, we can see that the gauge pressure measures the absolute pressure that is 'P'.
Therefore, P= 120 mmHg
And we know that,
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure.
P = Pg +Patm
where, P = absolute pressure
Pg = gauge pressure
Patm = atmospheric pressure.
Since we need to find 'Pg'. We have to minus 'Patm' from 'P'.
Therefore, the equation will be:
Pg = P - Patm
Pg = 120 -760 (the value of atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg)
Therefore, Pg = - 640 mmHg.
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which of the following does not describe the anatomical characteristics of the kidney? a. partially tucked under the ribs for protection b. protected by the perirenal fat capsule c. anterior to psoas major d. located in a retroperitoneal position e. left kidney is below the right kidney
"left kidney is below the right kidney" does not describe the anatomical characteristics of the kidney.
What is anatomical characteristics?The human body is made up of billions of smaller structures of four primary types: cells, tissues, organs, and systems. An organ is a grouping of several different types of tissues that work together to accomplish a certain function. The body is erect, squarely facing the spectator, feet flat and front in the anatomical posture. All definitions presented here assume that the human skeleton is in conventional anatomical posture, i.e., standing erect, gazing ahead, feet near and parallel to each other, arms at sides, palms facing front.
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How do heterotrophs obtain energy? how is this different from how autotrophs obtain energy?.
Heterotrophs must obtain their energy from other living things, whereas autotrophs can harness the sun's energy.
Organisms can be categorized into two main groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs, based on how they receive energy and nutrients. Because they can manufacture their own food from raw materials and energy, autotrophs are referred to as producers. Numerous varieties of bacteria, plants, and algae are examples.
When an organism uses other plants or animals for food and energy, it is referred to as a heterotroph. Heterotrophs are a group of organisms that are found in the second and third tiers of a food chain, and their name derives from the Greek terms hetero, which means "other," and troponin. Each food chain is composed of three trophic levels, which describe an organism's role in an ecosystem. Autotrophs, which include plants and algae, make up the first trophic level of the food chain. Herbivores—animals that eat plants—dwell on the second level. Omnivores and carnivores (animals that eat meat) live on the third level (animals that consume both plants and meat). Primary consumers (herbivores) and secondary consumers (carnivores and omnivores) are both heterotrophs, which means "nutrition," whereas primary producers are autotrophs.
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Suggest why leaves are green but roots aren’t
Answer:
plants and their leaves look green because the “special pair” of chlorophyll molecules uses the red end of the visible light spectrum to power reactions inside each cell. The unused green light is reflected from the leaf and we see that light.Leaves of plants are green because they perform photosynthesis while the roots are not because they do not perform photosynthesis is the best hypothesis based on the observation.
bacteria cause diseases in humans when they multiple choice carry the genes that code for virulent factors, causing them to be harmful to humans. rearrange the genes of the host to code for specific virulence factors that determine the type and extent of the illness. carry the same genes as the host organism, causing them to be indistinguishable from the host cell. carry the genes of organisms like birds (bird flu) or pigs (swine flu). carry genes that allow them to become symbiotes.
Recombinant viruses that carry extra genes encoding for a particular immunogen can be produced using virus strains used in vaccines.
How do microorganisms spread illness?Toxins are potent compounds that many disease-causing bacteria create; they harm your cells and make you sick. Other bacteria have the ability to directly destroy tissues.
What mechanism does a virus use to transfer DNA from one bacterium to another?Transduction
Transduction. The process of transduction, on the other hand, is how a virus spreads genetic material from one bacterium to another. This procedure is dependent on a particular kind of virus known as a bacteriophage, which can infect bacterial cells and use them as hosts to manufacture other viruses.
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Nutrients that are made by living things, are required only in small amounts, and that assist many chemical reactions are.
Nutrients that are made by living things, are required only in small amounts, and that assist many chemical reactions in the body are vitamins.
Vitamins and minerals are part of an essential nutrients group called as micronutrients. Vitamins can be termed as vitamin A, vitamin C, and vitamin D. These together plays a vital role in the regulation of chemical reaction in the body. They are part of enzyme cofactors.
Vitamins has a key role as coenzymes, and organic molecules those have the chemical reactions catalyzed by enzymes. On the other hand Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body and are involved in vast array of body functions .
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If you remove red and white blood cells from blood, watery fluid of the blood that is left is called.
Plasma is the watery, clear, and straw-colored liquid fluid that will be remained if we remove red and white blood cells from the blood.
What is plasma? How is it formed?
Plasma is the clear, straw-colored liquid portion of blood that constitutes 55% of total blood. Along with water, salt, and enzymes also contains important components like antibodies, clotting factors, and the proteins albumin and fibrinogen.
Plasma is formed from water and salts absorbed through the digestive tract. It is necessary to help our body recover from injury, distribute nutrients, remove waste and prevent infection, while moving through our circulatory system.
Plasma proteins are grouped into 3 fractions:
Plasma albuminPlasma globulinFibrinogenPlasma is the intravascular part of extracellular fluid that contains mostly water (up to 95% volume), and contains dissolved proteins (6-8%). It plays a vital role in an intravascular osmotic effect that keeps electrolyte concentration balanced and protects the body from infection and other blood-related disorders.
Hence plasma is the light amber-colored liquid that remains after red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are removed.
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