There are 5 red marbles, 15 blue marbles, and 5 green marbles in a bag. You reach in and randomly draw a marble, replace it, and draw another marble. What is the probability that one will be red and one will be blue?

Answer:

[tex]y = 12.25[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of parallelogram = [tex]49 {cm}^{2} [/tex]

∴ Side of Parallelogram = [tex]s = \frac{perimeter}{4} [/tex]

[tex]∴ \: s = y[/tex]

[tex]y = \frac{49}{4} [/tex]

[tex]y = 12.25[/tex]

Answer:

The angle of view between the main characters is 80°.

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle of view of the actor C between actors A and B is the measure of the angle of the central arc between A and B. Hence, the angle of view between the main characters is 80°.

Answer:

slope = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

We have two points which are (6,-2) and (-3,1).

and we need to find slope

use the slope formula

m = ( y² - y1 ) / ( x² + x¹)

Where,

substitute the values

m = ( 1 - 6 ) / ( - 3 -2)

m = -5 / -5

divide we get

m = 1

Answer:

slope = - [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (6-2) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (- 3, 1)

m = [tex]\frac{1-(-2)}{-3-6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1+2}{-9}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{-9}[/tex] = - [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

Distance cover by Jodie = 1 kilometer

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

Speed of Jodie = 6 kilometer/ hour

Total time Jodie ran = 10 minutes

Find:

Distance cover by Jodie

Computation:

Total time Jodie ran = 10 minutes = 10 / 60 = 0.1667 hour

Distance = Speed x time

Distance cover by Jodie = Speed of Jodie x Total time Jodie ran

Distance cover by Jodie = 6 x 0.1667

Distance cover by Jodie = 1.002

Distance cover by Jodie = 1 kilometer

Answer:80 and a half years old

Step-by-step explanation:62+18=80 6 months=1/2 of 1 year

80+1/2 = 80 1/2 years old

Answer:

C) any eqaution that has a variable or number squared is a qaudratic equation

Answer

“The LCM of three numbers is 360“ The prime factors of 360 are 2³×3²×5¹. That means:

At least one of the numbers contains 2³ in its factorization list.

At least one of the numbers contains 3² in its factorization list.

At least one of the numbers contains 5 in its factorization list.

“One of the numbers is 40“ The factorization list of 40 is 2³×5, so 1) and 3) are satisfied.

“The GCD of the same numbers is 2“ This implies that all 3 numbers are even, and that at least one number only has one 2.

The candidates for the 2nd number, that has 3², are: 18, 12, 72 (3²×2³), 120, 180, or 360.

The candidates for the 3rd number depends on how many 2s the 2nd number has.

If more than one: 2, 6, 18, 10, 30, 90

If only 1, those plus 4, 8, 12, 36, 72, 20, 40, 120, 180, 360

Answer:

in = - 9.5

Step-by-step explanation:

- 9.5 × 2 = -19

-19 - 1 = -20

Answer:

$1,650

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to find how much she paid the whole year. 27,700-x=7900. If we subtract 7900 from each side and add x to each side, we get 19,800=x. Therefore, she paid $19,800 in rent the whole year. Since there are 12 months in a year, and each month she paid the same, she paid $1,650 in rent each year, for 19800/12=1650

Answer:

[tex]x=-5,\\y=\frac{13}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\begin{cases}x+2y=8,\\x=-5\end{cases}[/tex]

Substitute the second equation into the first ([tex]x=-5[/tex]):

[tex]-5+2y=8,\\2y=13,\\y=\boxed{\frac{13}{2}}[/tex]

The second equation already denotes [tex]x=-5[/tex]. Therefore,

[tex]\boxed{x=-5,\\y=\frac{13}{2}}[/tex]

Answer:

x=-5

y=6.5

Step-by-step explanation:

if x=-5 then x+2y=8 could be rewriten as -5+2y=8 then you add 5 on both sides and you get 2y=13 then divide both sides by 2 and you get y=6.5

Answer:

B. -√13/4

Step-by-step explanation:

cos 0 = -√3/4 => x=-√3 , h=4

tan 0 > 0

y should be on quadrant III

y= √4²-3= √16-3=√13 => -√13

so, sin 0 = y/h = -√13/4

Answer:

B. -√13/4

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

Answer:

1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's call the aces for hearts, diamonds, clubs, and spades. So,  are red and [tex] c, s[/tex] is black.

Since the first card is replaced, the two picks are identical. This means that the sample space is given by all the possible couple

There are 16 such couples (we have four choices for the first card, and the same four choices for the second card). Now let's compute the odds in our favor to deduce the probability of winning:

If we want a player to draw two cards of the same color, the following couples are good:

so 8 possible couples over 16. This means that a player's probability of drawing two cards of the same color is 8/16 = 1/2.

Similarly, the probability of drawing a red ace first and then a black ace is represented by the following couples:

which are 4 over the same 16 as above, thus leading to a probability of 4/16 = 1/4.

Answer:

yes this is true helpful answer

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

y=sin (x-\pi/4)

Answer:

760

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

2 to the power x =1/32

2 to the power x =1/2 to the power 5

2 to the power x = 2 to the power -5

then,

x = -5

Answer:

47

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula for finding nth term of an arithemetic sequence is:

tn = t1 + (n-1) d

Where t1 is the first term, n is the specific term, and d is the common difference.

Plug numbers into the formula and solve:

t8 = 5 + (8-1)6

t8 = 47

Answer:

m = 4 / 5

Step-by-step explanation:

first coordinate : (0,-4)

second coordinate: (5,0)

The formulae for the slope : m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

Substituting,

m = (0 - (-4)) / (5 - 0)

m = 4 / 5

If this help you, please mark brainliest!

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to figure out what g equals

Since 6 x 8 = 48 your answer would be 8

6 x 8 = 48

~ LadyBrain

The value of g that satisfies the equation is 8.

To solve the equation 6g = 48 and find the value of g, we can isolate the variable g by dividing both sides of the equation by 6:

6g / 6 = 48 / 6

This simplifies to:

g = 8

Therefore, g equals 8. By dividing both sides of the equation by 6, we find that when g is multiplied by 6, it results in 48. Hence, the value of g that satisfies the equation is 8.

To know more about equation:

https://brainly.com/question/10724260

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Answer:

7 in 12 chance

Step-by-step explanation:

theres 12 pieces and cherry and grape has 7 combined pieces so the chance of you picking a piece that is either cherry or grape is 7/12

Answer:

I think there are 23 students in the art class.

Step-by-step explanation:

You first subtract 9 from 101. Then, you divide by four to get 23.

Answer:

f(x)=−4(x+ 41 ) 2 − 4 11

Explanation:

The given function is

f(x) = - 4 {x}^{2} - 2x - 3f(x)=−4x 2 −2x−3

To write the function is vertex form, we need to complete the square.

We first factor -4 to get:

f(x) = - 4 ({x}^{2} + \frac{1}{2} x) - 3f(x−4(x2 + 21 x)−3

Add and subtract the square of half the coefficient of x.

f(x) = - 4( {x}^{2} + \frac{1}{2} x + \frac{1}{16} ) - \frac{1}{4} - 3f(x)=−4(x 2 + 21 x+ 16 1 )− 41 −3

We factor the perfect square trinomial and simplify to get:

f(x) = - 4( {x + \frac{1}{4} )}^{2} - \frac{11}{4}f(x)=−4(x+ 41 ) 2 − 4 11

Answer:

190

Step-by-step explanation:

1+2+3+4......19=210-20

=190

Answer:

x = 54.40883769

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle, we can use trig functions

tan theta = opp /adj

tan 37 = 41/x

x tan 37 = 41

x = 41/ tan 37

x = 54.40883769

Answer:

9-2 = 7

8-3 = 5

[tex]\sqrt{5^{2} +7^{2} \\[/tex]

= 8.602325267

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

area of triangle

90⁰+60⁰+x = 180⁰

150⁰ +x = 180⁰

x = 30⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 × base × heinght

1/2 × 30⁰ × 90⁰

15 × 90

1350 ft² is area of triangle

Answer:

1, 20

2, 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

your correct answers are  

1, 20

2, 20

Step-by-step explanation: