Replace the question mark with the answer.

√(5/6)^2 = ?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

0.83333333333 or 5/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Always do the parenthesis first

Then engage with the ^2

Then take the sq root of that answer

Answer 2

Answer:

0.833333.... or 5/6

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2 ways to do this:

1) Since you have a square root followed by an immediate square, they cancel each other out, so you are left with 5/6

2) Take the long way and actually take the square root of 5/6 then square it, which would still give you 5/6

hope this helps :)


Related Questions

which of the following equations has exactly one solution?

A. 3x+5-x-2x=1
B. 8-2(x+1)=6x+6
C. 5x+3+x=3(2x+1)
D. 4(x-4)= 2x+2(x-4)

Answers

A. 3x+5-x-2x=1 has only one solution.

To have exactly one solution, the equation must be consistent (have a solution) and not have infinitely many solutions. An equation will have infinitely many solutions if both sides of the equation simplify to the same expression, meaning that any value of x that satisfies one side of the equation will also satisfy the other side. Therefore, we need to simplify each equation and check for consistency and the possibility of infinitely many solutions.

A. 3x + 5 - x - 2x = 1

Simplifying, we get:

0 = -6x - 4

6x = -4

x = -2/3

This equation is consistent and has exactly one solution, x = -2/3.

B. 8 - 2(x + 1) = 6x + 6

Simplifying, we get:

6 - 2x = 6x + 6

-8x = 0

x = 0

This equation is consistent, but it simplifies to -8x = 0, which means that any value of x will satisfy the equation. Therefore, this equation has infinitely many solutions.

C. 5x + 3 + x = 3(2x + 1)

Simplifying, we get:

6x + 3 = 6x + 3

0 = 0

This equation simplifies to 0 = 0, which means that any value of x will satisfy the equation. Therefore, this equation has infinitely many solutions.

D. 4(x - 4) = 2x + 2(x - 4)

Simplifying, we get:

4x - 16 = 4x - 8

-16 = -8

This equation simplifies to -16 = -8, which is not true for any value of x. Therefore, this equation is inconsistent and has no solutions.

Therefore, the only equation that has exactly one solution is A. 3x + 5 - x - 2x = 1.

Learn more about linear equations:

https://brainly.com/question/2030026

A) 3x+5-x-2x=1 has exactly one solution

A. 3x+5-x-2x=1 has only one solution.

To have exactly one solution, the equation must be consistent (have a solution) and not have infinitely many solutions. An equation will have infinitely many solutions if both sides of the equation simplify to the same expression, meaning that any value of x that satisfies one side of the equation will also satisfy the other side. Therefore, we need to simplify each equation and check for consistency and the possibility of infinitely many solutions.

A. 3x + 5 - x - 2x = 1

Simplifying, we get:

0 = -6x - 4

6x = -4

x = -2/3

This equation is consistent and has exactly one solution, x = -2/3.

B. 8 - 2(x + 1) = 6x + 6

Simplifying, we get:

6 - 2x = 6x + 6

-8x = 0

x = 0

This equation is consistent, but it simplifies to -8x = 0, which means that any value of x will satisfy the equation. Therefore, this equation has infinitely many solutions.

C. 5x + 3 + x = 3(2x + 1)

Simplifying, we get:

6x + 3 = 6x + 3

0 = 0

This equation simplifies to 0 = 0, which means that any value of x will satisfy the equation. Therefore, this equation has infinitely many solutions.

D. 4(x - 4) = 2x + 2(x - 4)

Simplifying, we get:

4x - 16 = 4x - 8

-16 = -8

This equation simplifies to -16 = -8, which is not true for any value of x. Therefore, this equation is inconsistent and has no solutions.

Therefore, the only equation that has exactly one solution is A. 3x + 5 - x - 2x = 1.

Learn more about linear equations:

https://brainly.com/question/2030026

A) 3x+5-x-2x=1 has exactly one solution

Write the equivalent percent for each fraction.

7/2

4/1,000

10/25

3/8
Please help

Answers

Answer:

[tex]\frac{7}{2}[/tex] = 350%

[tex]\frac{4}{1000}[/tex] = 0.4%

[tex]\frac{10}{25}[/tex] = 40%

[tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex] = 37.5%

How to change a fraction into a percentage?

To change a fraction to a percentage, you can divide the numerator by the denominator then multiply the result by 100. Alternatively, you can multiply the numerator by 100 first then divide the result by the denominator of the fraction.

Hope this helps :)

Pls brainliest...

This is the answer
I hope this helps

Polygon JKLM is drawn with vertices J(−4, −4), K(−4, −6), L(−1, −6), M (−1, −4). Determine the image coordinates of L′ if the preimage is reflected across y = −2.

L′(−3, 6)
L′(−1, 6)
L′(−1, 2)
L′(1, 2)

Answers

Answer:

The answer is L'(-1, -2)

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have any questions ask me please! :)

this is the answer L′(−1, 2)

PLSSS LOOK AT IMAGE, I NEED HELP

Answers

Answer: 33.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since you want numbers less than 3, that would mean you want the sides with #1 and #2. And since there are six sides on the dice, you would put the number of sides you wish over the total number of sides. This would be 2/6 which could be simplified to 1/3 and if you want a decimal answer divide 1/3 to get a repeating decimal then move two decimal places to the right to make it 33.3% (This is rounded to the nearest tenth decimal place)

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