QUESTION 3
A 10 kg cement block is pulled across the floor with a force of 50 N at an angle of 30° with the
horizontal The block accelerates at 1,5 m s?
30°
10 kg
(2)
31
Define the term normal force
3.2
Draw a FORCE DIAGRAM showing ALL the forces acting on the object.
3.3
Calculate the magnitude of the
(3)
3.3.1 Normal force
(5)
3.3.2 Frictional force which acts on the crate
(4)
3.3.3 Coefficient of kinetic friction
[18]​

The angle necessary to keep a 10 kg box motionless, given a coefficient of static friction of 0.55 between the box and the ramp, is 33.4°, which corresponds to Option A.

To determine the angle, we can use the relationship between the coefficient of static friction, the angle of the incline, and the gravitational force acting on the box. The maximum static friction force can be calculated using the formula:

Friction force = coefficient of static friction * Normal force

The Normal force can be found by decomposing the gravitational force acting on the box into components parallel and perpendicular to the incline. The perpendicular component (Normal force) is equal to the weight of the box (mass * gravitational acceleration).

Since the box is motionless, the friction force must be equal to the component of the gravitational force acting parallel to the incline:

Friction force = Component of weight parallel to incline

By substituting the given values and solving for the angle, we find:

coefficient of static friction = tan(angle)

angle = arctan(coefficient of static friction)

angle = arctan(0.55) ≈ 33.4°

Therefore, the correct answer is Option A, 33.4°.

You can learn more about static friction at

https://brainly.com/question/13680415

#SPJ11

Answer:

I don't know the answer but I needed the answer to that on a quiz and I downloaded sorcatic and it brings u to an app or website with the answer I hope this helps if you can't find the app than just tell me

The distance of the ladybug from the center of the platform does affect the angular velocity, and this can be determined by observing the rotational motion of the ladybug.

Angular velocity is the rate at which an object rotates around a specific axis. In the case of the ladybug on a platform, the distance from the center of the platform will indeed impact the angular velocity.

When the ladybug is closer to the center, it has a smaller radius and therefore a smaller distance to travel in a given time, resulting in a higher angular velocity. Conversely, when the ladybug is farther from the center, it has a larger radius and a greater distance to travel, leading to a lower angular velocity.

To determine the effect of the ladybug's distance on the angular velocity, one can observe the rotational motion of the ladybug. By placing the ladybug at different distances from the center of the platform and measuring the time it takes to complete a full revolution, it becomes evident that the angular velocity varies based on the ladybug's distance.

A shorter time to complete a revolution indicates a higher angular velocity, while a longer time indicates a lower angular velocity. This demonstrates the relationship between the ladybug's distance from the center and its angular velocity.

Learn more about Angular velocity here:

https://brainly.com/question/32217742

#SPJ11

The minimum horsepower required to drag the 370-kg box at a speed of 1.20 m/s is the calculated value from the equation above.

To determine the minimum horsepower required, we need to calculate the force needed to overcome friction and move the box at the given speed.

The force required to overcome friction can be calculated using the equation:

F_friction = coefficient of friction * normal force

The normal force can be calculated as the weight of the box:

normal force = mass * gravitational acceleration

Substituting the given values:

normal force = 370 kg * 9.8 m/s^2

Next, we can calculate the force required to maintain a constant speed:

F = mass * acceleration

Since the box is moving at a constant speed, the acceleration is zero. Therefore, the force required to maintain the speed is zero.

The minimum force required is the force to overcome friction, so:

F_required = F_friction

Substituting the values:

F_required = 0.45 * (370 kg * 9.8 m/s^2)

Now, we need to convert this force to horsepower. One horsepower is equal to 745.7 watts. Therefore, we can calculate the minimum horsepower required:

Horsepower = F_required * (1 watt / 745.7) * (1 horsepower / 1 watt)

Finally, substituting the values and calculating:

Horsepower = (0.45 * (370 kg * 9.8 m/s^2)) / 745.7

Hence, the minimum horsepower required to drag the 370-kg box at a speed of 1.20 m/s is the calculated value from the equation above.

To learn more about horsepower click here

https://brainly.com/question/31981342

#SPJ11

Answer: Foods that naturally are nutrient-rich include fruits and vegetables. Lean meats, fish, whole grains, dairy, legumes, nuts, and seeds also are high in nutrients.

When the object is placed between 2F and F in front of a concave lens characteristic of the image formed by an object is virtual, therefore the correct option first option that the image is virtual.

It is the phenomenon of bending of light when it travels from one medium to another medium. The bending towards or away from the normal depends upon the medium of travel as well as the refractive index of the material.

Snell's law,

n₁sin(θ₁) = n₂sin(θ₂)

Where n is the refractive index and  θ represents angles

A concave lens is used to diverge the incident rays of light falling on it. because of this, the image formed by the concave lens is virtual.

These concave lenses are used in several days to day life applications such as cameras, telescopes, and eye glasses.

When the object is placed between 2F and F in front of a concave lens the characteristic of the image formed by an object is virtual. therefore the correct option first option is that the image is virtual.

Learn more about refraction from here

brainly.com/question/13088981

#SPJ5

Answer:

the image is virtual

Explanation:

I got it right

The UMTS (Universal Mobile Telecommunications System) and GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) are two different cellular technologies used for mobile communication. The channel structure of the air interface in UMTS differs from GSM in several ways.

GSM:

In GSM, the air interface channel structure is based on a combination of time division multiple access (TDMA) and frequency division multiple access (FDMA). The spectrum is divided into multiple frequency channels, and each channel is further divided into time slots. Each time slot supports one user at a time, allowing multiple users to share the same frequency but with different time slots. This TDMA/FDMA combination is known as the TDMA frame structure.

UMTS:

UMTS, on the other hand, utilizes a different channel structure called wideband code division multiple access (WCDMA). WCDMA is a spread spectrum technique that employs a wider bandwidth compared to GSM. The entire available spectrum is shared among all users simultaneously, using different codes to differentiate between different users. This enables multiple users to access the same frequency at the time, resulting in a more efficient utilization of the spectrum.

To learn more about UMTS (Universal Mobile Telecommunications System), Click here:

https://brainly.com/question/29572989

#SPJ11

Two surface features that Ganymede appears to have in common with the moon are Craters and Rilles.

Ganymede, the largest moon of Jupiter, shares a couple of surface features in common with Earth's moon. These similarities are:

1. Craters: Both Ganymede and the Moon exhibit numerous impact craters on their surfaces. Craters are formed when meteoroids or other space debris collide with the surface of a celestial body. The presence of craters suggests a history of impacts over time. Both Ganymede and the Moon have craters of varying sizes, ranging from small to large, indicating their geological histories and the impact events they have experienced.

2. Rilles: Rilles are long, narrow depressions or channels on the surface of a celestial body. They can be formed by a variety of processes, including volcanic activity or the collapse of subsurface structures. Ganymede and the Moon both have rilles on their surfaces. For example, the Moon has numerous sinuous rilles, such as the famous Vallis Schröteri (also known as the "Rille of the Serpent"), which are thought to be the result of ancient volcanic activity. Ganymede has a network of grooved terrain that includes linear features resembling rilles, possibly formed by tectonic or volcanic processes.

While Ganymede and the Moon share these surface features, it's worth noting that Ganymede has a more complex geology compared to the Moon. Ganymede has a mix of cratered regions, grooved terrain, and younger, smoother areas, indicating a more diverse geological history influenced by factors such as tectonic activity and subsurface processes, including the presence of a subsurface ocean.

To learn more about Craters click here

https://brainly.com/question/31838267

#SPJ11

Answer:

The kinetic energy of a moving object is directly proportional to its mass and directly proportional to the square of its velocity. This means that an object with twice the mass and equal speed will have twice the kinetic energy while an object with equal mass and twice the speed will have quadruple the kinetic energy.

Answer & Explanation:

In science, rationality and creativity work together. Creativity allows us to view and solve problems with innovation and openness. Scientific theories often came from sparks of creative thinking and bold yet logical processes.

The maximum efficiency of the heat engine with operating temperatures of 580°C and 380°C. is 4.5%.

The maximum efficiency of a heat engine with operating temperatures of 580°C and 380°C can be calculated using the Carnot efficiency formula.

The Carnot efficiency formula is given by:

Efficiency = 1 - (Tc / Th)

where Tc is the temperature of the cold reservoir and Th is the temperature of the hot reservoir.

Plugging in the given temperatures:

Efficiency = 1 - (380°C / 580°C) = 1 - 0.655 ≈ 0.345 ≈ 34.5%

Therefore, the correct answer is 34.5%, which represents the maximum efficiency of the heat engine with operating temperatures of 580°C and 380°C.

You can learn more about heat engine at

https://brainly.com/question/28206778

#SPJ11

(a) The parity operator is Hermitian as it satisfies P† = P.

(b) Eigenfunctions of the parity operator with different eigenvalues are orthogonal.

(a) To prove that the parity operator is Hermitian, we must show that it satisfies the condition: P† = P, where P† denotes the Hermitian conjugate of the operator P.

The parity operator, denoted by P, is defined as follows:

Pψ(x) = ψ(-x),

where ψ(x) is the wavefunction.

To prove that P is Hermitian, we consider the Hermitian conjugate of the parity operator P†:

P†ψ(x) = [ψ(-x)]†.

Since we are dealing with complex conjugation, we can write this as:

P†ψ(x) = ψ*(-x),

where ψ*(x) represents the complex conjugate of the wavefunction ψ(x).

Comparing P†ψ(x) with Pψ(x), we can observe that they are equal except for the presence of the complex conjugate in P†ψ(x). However, the complex conjugate does not affect equality since it cancels out when taking the inner product or evaluating the integral.

Thus, P†ψ(x) = ψ*(-x) = ψ(x) = Pψ(x).

Since P†ψ(x) = Pψ(x), we can conclude that the parity operator P is Hermitian.

(b) To show that the eigenfunctions of the parity operator corresponding to different eigenvalues are orthogonal, we need to demonstrate that their inner product is zero.

Let ψ1(x) and ψ2(x) be two eigenfunctions of the parity operator with eigenvalues p1 and p2, respectively, where p1 ≠ p2.

The eigenvalue equation for the parity operator can be written as:

Pψ(x) = pψ(x).

Considering the inner product of ψ1(x) and ψ2(x) and using the definition of the parity operator, we have:

⟨ψ1|ψ2⟩ = ∫ ψ1*(x)ψ2(x) dx.

Now, we can substitute the definition of the parity operator into this inner product:

⟨ψ1|ψ2⟩ = ∫ ψ1*(-x)ψ2(x) dx.

Since p1 ≠ p2, the eigenvalues of ψ1(x) and ψ2(x) are different. This implies that their corresponding eigenfunctions are distinct and do not have the same symmetry properties under parity.

When integrating the product ψ1*(-x)ψ2(x) over the entire domain, the integrand will exhibit oscillatory behavior due to the mismatch in the symmetry of the two functions.

As a result, the integral ∫ ψ1*(-x)ψ2(x) dx will evaluate to zero, indicating that the eigenfunctions of the parity operator corresponding to different eigenvalues are orthogonal.

Therefore, we can conclude that the eigenfunctions of the parity operator with different eigenvalues are orthogonal.

Learn more about hermitian operators at

https://brainly.com/question/32229692

#SPJ4

a) Calculation of temperature at the fat-inner fur boundaryThe rate of heat flow is given by:

[tex]q =\frac{kA\Delta T}{d}[/tex]

where, k = thermal conductivity; A = surface area; ΔT = temperature difference and d = thicknessSince the rate of heat flow is given to be 51.4 W, we can obtain the temperature difference from the given data.

[tex]ΔT = \frac{30.9 - 2.8}{\ln \frac{3.9}{1.6/2}} ≈ 3.6°C[/tex]

Now, substituting the given values of A, d and k, we get

[tex]51.4 = \frac{0.200 \pi (1.6)^{2} \times 3.6}{0.039} × (T1 - 30.9)[/tex]

where T1 is the required temperature at the fat-inner fur boundarySimplifying, we getT1 ≈ -9.7°Cb) Calculation of thickness of air layerAssuming the layer of air to be stationary and isothermal, the rate of heat flow can be calculated using the following equation:q = hAΔTwhere, h = heat transfer coefficientThe heat transfer coefficient, h can be calculated using the relation:

[tex]q = [\frac{kA\Delta T}{d} = hAΔT ⇒ h =\frac{k}{d}\\[/tex]

Using this, we can obtain the heat transfer coefficient, which is approximately 0.7 W/(m².K)Using the relation above, we can write:

[tex]51.4 = 0.7 × (4π(1.6/2)²) × ΔT × d[/tex]

where ΔT is the temperature difference and d is the thickness of the air layerSolving for d, we getd ≈ 1.2 cmTherefore, the thickness of the air layer should be around 1.2 cm so that the bear loses heat at a rate of 51.4 W.

To know more about isothermal visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30579741

#SPJ11

The rms current in the circuit is 0.0329 A, the phase angle between voltage and current in the circuit is approximately 2.53 degrees and the voltmeter reading across R is 201.15 V, and the voltmeter reading across C is 38.85 V.

What is a voltmeter?

A voltmeter is an electrical measuring instrument used to measure the voltage or potential difference between two points in an electric circuit. It is connected in parallel across the component or portion of the circuit where the voltage is to be measured.

Part A:

The rms current in the circuit (Irms) can be calculated using the formula:

Irms = Vrms / Z,

where Vrms is the rms applied voltage and Z is the impedance of the circuit.

The impedance of an RC circuit is given by:

Z = √(R² + (1 / (ωC))²),

where R is the resistance, C is the capacitance, and ω is the angular frequency.

Given:

Resistance, R = 6.10 kΩ = 6100 Ω,

Capacitance, C = 1.20 μF = 1.20 × 10^(-6) F,

RMS applied voltage, Vrms = 240 V,

Frequency, f = 60.0 Hz.

First, let's calculate the angular frequency:

ω = 2πf.

Substituting the given frequency value:

ω = 2π × 60.0 rad/s.

Now, we can calculate the impedance:

Z = √(R² + (1 / (ωC))²).

Substituting the given values:

Z = √((6100 Ω)² + (1 / (2π × 60.0 rad/s × 1.20 × 10^(-6) F))²).

Calculating:

Z ≈ 7277.61 Ω.

Finally, we can calculate the rms current:

Irms = Vrms / Z.

Substituting the given values:

Irms ≈ 240 V / 7277.61 Ω.

Calculating:

Irms ≈ 0.0329 A.

Therefore, the rms current in the circuit is approximately 0.0329 A.

Part B:

The phase angle (φ) between voltage and current in an RC circuit can be calculated using the formula:

tan(φ) = (1 / (ωRC)),

where R is the resistance, C is the capacitance, and ω is the angular frequency.

Substituting the given values:

tan(φ) = (1 / (2π × 60.0 rad/s × 6100 Ω × 1.20 × 10^(-6) F)).

Calculating:

tan(φ) ≈ 0.0444.

To find the phase angle φ, we take the inverse tangent (arctan) of the calculated value:

φ ≈ arctan(0.0444).

Calculating:

φ ≈ 2.53 degrees.

Therefore, the phase angle between voltage and current in the circuit is approximately 2.53 degrees.

Part C:

The voltmeter readings across R and C can be calculated using the voltage-divider rule.

The voltage across the resistor (VR) can be calculated as:

VR = Vrms * (R / Z).

Substituting the given values:

VR = 240 V * (6100 Ω / 7277.61 Ω).

Calculating:

VR ≈ 201.15 V.

The voltage across the capacitor (VC) can be calculated as:

VC = Vrms * (1 - (R / Z)).

Substituting the given values:

VC = 240 V * (1 - (6100 Ω / 7277.61 Ω)).

Calculating:

VC ≈ 38.85 V.

Therefore, the voltmeter reading across R is approximately 201.15 V, and the voltmeter reading across C is approximately 38.85 V.

To learn more about voltmeter,

https://brainly.com/question/29294585

#SPJ4

If Earth's mass decreased to one half its original mass, with no change in radius, then your weight would decrease to one half your original weight. Hence, option (A) is correct.

Centripetal acceleration is caused by constant change in direction.

An attribute of an object moving in a circular route is centripetal acceleration. Any object moving in a circle with an acceleration vector pointing in the direction of the circle's center is said to be experiencing centripetal acceleration.

You must have come across a lot of centripetal acceleration in your daily life. You experience centripetal acceleration as you drive in circles, and a satellite experiences centripetal acceleration when it orbits the planet. Being centered is referred to as being centripetal.

Learn centripetal acceleration here:

https://brainly.com/question/14465119

#SPJ6

The coefficient of kinetic friction between block A and the tabletop is 0.336.

The weight of block A = 43.2 N

The weight of block B = 29.0 N

(a) The downward motion of block B is constant
(b) The acceleration of block B is  -0.00069 m/s²

(a)

The net force acting on the block B will be,

F_net = T - f_fric = m_b × a

Where

T is the tension in the string,

f_fric is the frictional force acting on the block A,

m_b is the mass of block B and

a is the acceleration of block B.

Also,

T = m_b × g = 29.0 N

where g is the acceleration due to gravity.

And as the block is moving with constant velocity, the acceleration of block B is zero.

So, F_net = 0

T - f_fric = 0

f_fric = T

The frictional force f_fric can be expressed as

f_fric = μ_k × N

where N is the normal force.

The normal force on block A is the weight of block A + the weight of the cat,

so,

N = m_Ag + m_catg

The mass of the cat is also 43.2 N.

Thus, N = 43.2 N + 43.2 N = 86.4 N

Therefore,

μ_k × N = T

μ_k = T/N

μ_k = 29.0/86.4

μ_k = 0.336

The coefficient of kinetic friction between block A and the tabletop is 0.336.

(b)

The net force acting on the block B is F_net = T - f_fric

F_net = m_b × a

Where T is the tension in the string,

f_fric is the frictional force acting on the block A,

m_b is the mass of block B and

a is the acceleration of block B.

T = 29.0 N

f_fric = μ_k × N

f_fric = 0.336 × 86.4

f_fric = 29.02 N

F_net = T - f_fric

F_net = 29.0 - 29.02

F_net = -0.02 N

Thus, F_net = m_b × a

-0.02 N = 29.0 N × a

a = -0.02/29.0

a = -0.00069 m/s²

The acceleration of block B is negative and it is slowing down.

Learn more about the coefficient of kinetic friction: brainly.com/question/2219779

#SPJ11

Answer:

The answer is "1.0748 and 1.0875".

Explanation:

Please find the complete question in the attachment file.

The incidence angle is [tex]i=45^{\circ}[/tex] for all colors When the angle is r, then use [tex]\frac{\sin{i}}{\sin{r}}=\frac{n_{o}}{n}[/tex] . Snell's rule Where [tex]n_{o}[/tex] is an outside material reflectance (same hue index) or n seems to be the crown glass index of the refraction, That index of inclination is [tex]90^{\circ}[/tex] as the light in color shifted behaver from complete inner diffraction to diffraction.

Whenever the external channel has a thermal conductivity for the red light, that's also

[tex]n_{o}=\frac{n_{r}\sin{45^{\circ}}}{\sin{90^{\circ}}}=\frac{1.520\times\sin{45^{\circ}}}{\sin{90^{\circ}}}=1.0748[/tex]

When outside the material has a refractive index, this happens with violet light.

[tex]n_{o}=\frac{n_{r}\sin{45^{\circ}}}{\sin{90^{\circ}}}=\frac{1.538\times\sin{45^{\circ}}}{\sin{90^{\circ}}}=1.0875[/tex]

In point a, The only red light flows out from the leaned face and the residual colors are mirrored mostly on prism for the primary benefits [tex]n_{o}=1.0748[/tex] (and slightly larger than that).

In point b, The only violet light is shown in the prism with the majority of the colors coming out from the sloping face for a scale similar to [tex]n_{o}= 1.0875[/tex] (and slightly smaller than this).

Answer:

The answer is B - the bending of rock layers happens due to stress, and this process is called folding. Faults are when it looks broken/displaced

The reactions at the supports of the beam are [tex]R_1[/tex] = 1150 N and [tex]R_2[/tex] = 1150 N.

Let's denote the reactions at the supports as [tex]R_1[/tex]and [tex]R_2[/tex].

Since the beam is supported at both ends, we can assume that it is a simply supported beam.

The total downward load consists of the distributed load and the concentrated load.

The downward load due to the distributed load can be calculated by integrating the load intensity over the length:

Downward load due to distributed load = (500 N/m) * (3 m) = 1500 N

The total downward load due to the concentrated load is 800 N.

Now, let's consider the equilibrium equation:

[tex]R_1 + R_2[/tex] = 1500 N + 800 N

[tex]R_1 + R_2[/tex] = 2300 N

Since the beam is simply supported, we can assume that the reactions at the supports are equal. Therefore:

[tex]R_1 = R_2[/tex]= 2300 N / 2

[tex]R_1 = R_2[/tex]= 1150 N

To know more about equilibrium, here

brainly.com/question/14281439

#SPJ4

--The complete Question is, The internal loadings at a section of the beam are given as follows: a uniformly distributed load of 500 N/m over a length of 3 meters and a concentrated load of 800 N applied at the midpoint of the same section. Determine the reactions at the supports of the beam.--

After seven half-lives, a significant percentage (approximately 99.22%) of a radioactive species would be found as daughter material, while only a small fraction (approximately 0.78%) of the parent material would remain.

The missing item to complete the beta decay reaction would be the radioactive parent nucleus. Without knowing the specific parent nucleus involved, it is challenging to provide the complete reaction equation. In beta decay, a radioactive parent nucleus undergoes the transformation where a beta particle (electron) is emitted, resulting in the formation of a daughter nucleus.

Now let's discuss the percentage of a radioactive species that would be found as daughter material after seven half-lives. The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time it takes for half of the initial amount of the substance to decay. Each half-life represents a 50% reduction in the amount of the parent material remaining.

After one half-life, 50% of the parent material will have decayed, leaving 50% as the daughter material. After two half-lives, another 50% of the remaining parent material will decay, resulting in 25% of the original parent material and 75% as the daughter material. This pattern continues for each subsequent half-life.

Therefore, after seven half-lives, the remaining parent material will be reduced to (1/2)^7 = 1/128 ≈ 0.78% of the original amount. Consequently, approximately 99.22% of the radioactive species would have decayed into the daughter material after seven half-lives.

It is important to note that the specific percentage of daughter material after seven half-lives will depend on the particular radioactive species and its decay characteristics. Different radioactive substances have different half-lives, so the percentage of daughter material after seven half-lives will vary between different radioactive species.

For more such information on: radioactive species

https://brainly.com/question/1518972

#SPJ8

Answer:

5,000-Hz

Explanation:

Answer:

 q1 = q₂=  -3

therefore each sphere has the same charge of -3 untis

Explanation:

The metallic spheres have mobile charge, so when the two spheres come into contact the total charge

           Q_total = q₁ + q₂

           Q_total = -2 -4

          Q_total = -6 units

it is distributed in between the two spheres evenly since the charges of the same sign repel each other.

When the spheres separate each one has

            q₁ = -6/2

            q1 = q₂=  -3

therefore each sphere has the same charge of -3 untis

The correct order of electromagnetic radiation from lowest to highest energy per photon is- Radio waves < Microwaves < Infrared radiation > Visible light < Ultraviolet radiation < and x-rays. So the order is 1,2,4,3.

Radio waves contain low-energy photons; microwave photons have slightly higher energy than radio waves; infrared photons have more energy than visible, ultraviolet, and x-rays.

Gamma irradiation is very penetrating, and it interacts with matter by ionization in three ways; photoelectric effects, Compton scattering, or pair generation. These radiations are referred to as non-ionizing radiations as they can ionize the molecules due to high penetration power.

To learn more about electromagnetic radiation, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/29646884

#SPJ4

To estimate the temperature change from room temperature to water hot enough for a hot shower, we need more information such as the initial room temperature and the desired temperature of the hot water.

Assuming a typical room temperature of around 20°C and a desired hot water temperature for a shower of around 40-45°C, we can estimate the temperature change as follows: Temperature change = Desired hot water temperature - Initial room temperature. Let's assume the desired hot water temperature is 45°C: Temperature change = 45°C - 20°C = 25°C. Therefore, the estimated temperature change to go from room temperature to hot water for a shower would be approximately 25°C.

To learn more about temperature, https://brainly.com/question/24233878

#SPJ11

Answer:

3

Explanation:

mass number minus the atomic number

35-32

3

Answer: its flowing, reaction

Explanation: this is because currents in a device have a flowing object inside

The period of the pendulum, considering the small angle approximation, is approximately 2.45 seconds (s). This is calculated using the formula T = 2π√(L/g), where L is the effective length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

To calculate the period, we can use the formula for the period of a simple pendulum, which is given by T = 2π√(L/g), where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

In this case, the length of the pendulum is 2.3 m. However, we need to consider the effective length of the pendulum due to the position of mass M2. The distance of M2 from the pivot point is (3/5)L = (3/5)(2.3) = 1.38 m.

Therefore, the effective length of the pendulum is L - (1.38) = 0.92 m.

Substituting the values into the formula, we have T = 2π√(0.92/9.8) ≈ 2.45 s.

Thus, the period of this pendulum in the small angle approximation is approximately 2.45 seconds.

To know more about pendulum, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29268528#

#SPJ4