This is a summary of the bank reconciliation for Oriole Company as of July 31. The cash balance per bank statement was $6,038. However, there were some adjustments that needed to be made to reflect the true cash balance. First, the bank charged a service fee of $27 that was not recorded by Oriole Company. This reduced the cash balance by $27. Second, the bank made an error and deducted another company's check of $1,200 from Oriole Company's account. This decreased the cash balance by $1,200. Therefore, the adjusted cash balance per bank was $7,265.
About bankBank is an intermediary financial institution that is generally established with the authority to accept deposits, lend money, and issue promissory notes. The word bank comes from the Italian banca which means a place where money is exchanged.
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Question 3 of 8 View Policies Current Attempt in Progress < Current Assets The following listed in alphabetical order, are the adjusted accounts of Carla Vista Inc. as of December 31, 2022: Accounts Payable $3,744, Accounts Receivable $1,632, Accumulated Depreciation-Equipment $5.760.Bonds Payable $29,760, Cash $1.248. Common Stock $19,200, Equipment $48,000, Notes Payable (current) $2.112. Inventory $3,552. Notes Payable (long term) $4,800, Land $24,960, Retained Earnings $14,400, and Supplies $384. Prepare a classified balance sheet in good form as of December 31, 2022. (List current assets in order of liquidity) Cash CARLA VISTA INC. Balance Sheet December 31, 2022 Assets
CARLA VISTA INC. Balance Sheet as of December 31, 2022, shows total assets of $74,016, total liabilities of $40,416, and total stockholders' equity of $33,600.
CARLA VISTA INC.
Balance Sheet
December 31, 2022
Assets:
Current Assets:
Cash $1,248
Accounts Receivable $1,632
Inventory $3,552
Supplies $384
Total Current Assets $6,816
Long-term Assets:
Land $24,960
Equipment $48,000
Accumulated Depreciation - Equipment ($5,760)
Total Long-term Assets $67,200
Total Assets $74,016
Liabilities and Equity:
Current Liabilities:
Accounts Payable $3,744
Notes Payable (current) $2,112
Total Current Liabilities $5,856
Long-term Liabilities:
Bonds Payable $29,760
Notes Payable (long term) $4,800
Total Long-term Liabilities $34,560
Total Liabilities $40,416
Stockholders' Equity:
Common Stock $19,200
Retained Earnings $14,400
Total Stockholders' Equity $33,600
Total Liabilities and Equity $74,016
Note: The assets are listed in order of liquidity, with cash being the most liquid followed by accounts receivable, inventory, and supplies.
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One criticism of the interest coverage ratios (income basis) as measures of long-term solvency risk is that they use A interest expense rather than earnings in the numerator B. earnings rather than cash flows in the numerator Oc. cash flows rather than earnings in the numerator OD. interest expense rather than cash flows in the numerator
The correct answer is C. cash flows rather than earnings in the numerator.
The interest coverage ratio is a financial metric used to assess a company's ability to meet its interest obligations on its outstanding debt. It is typically calculated by dividing a company's earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) by its interest expense. The resulting ratio indicates the number of times the company's earnings can cover its interest payments.
One criticism of using earnings in the numerator is that earnings can be influenced by various accounting choices and non-cash items, such as depreciation and amortization, which may not accurately reflect a company's ability to generate sufficient cash flows to cover its interest expenses. This is especially relevant when assessing long-term solvency risk, as the ability to generate sustainable cash flows is crucial for meeting long-term obligations.
By using cash flows rather than earnings in the numerator, the interest coverage ratio focuses on the actual cash generated by a company's operations. Cash flows provide a more accurate measure of a company's ability to generate the necessary funds to cover interest expenses, as cash flows directly represent the inflows and outflows of cash within a given period.
Using cash flows in the numerator helps to mitigate the impact of non-cash items and accounting choices on the interest coverage ratio, providing a more reliable measure of a company's long-term solvency risk. By focusing on cash flows, investors and creditors can better assess the company's ability to generate sufficient cash to service its debt obligations, which is a key consideration for evaluating long-term financial stability.
In summary, using cash flows rather than earnings in the numerator of the interest coverage ratio addresses the criticism of relying solely on earnings, as cash flows provide a more accurate representation of a company's ability to meet its long-term debt obligations. This approach allows for a more comprehensive assessment of a company's long-term solvency risk.
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The career ladder path is most prevalent in the U.S. and would be also be followed when joining a big international company, like Aramco.
a. True
b. False
The statement "the career ladder path is most prevalent in the U.S. and would be also be followed when joining a big international company, like Aramco" is false.
While the career ladder path is a common approach in many organizations, it is not necessarily the most prevalent or the only path followed in the U.S. or international companies like Aramco.
In recent years, there has been a shift away from the traditional career ladder model towards more flexible career paths and structures.
Many organizations now offer diverse career options, such as lateral moves, project-based assignments, cross-functional experiences, and promotions based on skill development and competency rather than a strict hierarchical progression.
Additionally, multinational companies like Aramco often have a global workforce with diverse cultural backgrounds and different career progression models. They may incorporate various career development approaches that align with their organizational structure and business goals.
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Present Value Computation
You will receive $4,500 in 3 years. What is the present value if you can earn 8% interest compounded annually?
Use Excel or a financial calculator for computation. Round your answer to nearest dollar.
The present value of receiving $4,500 in 3 years with an 8% interest rate compounded annually is approximately $3,607
To calculate the present value of $4,500 received in 3 years with an 8% interest rate compounded annually, you can use the present value formula:
Present Value = Future Value / (1 + Interest Rate)ⁿ
Where:
Future Value = $4,500
Interest Rate = 8% or 0.08
n = Number of periods = 3
Using this formula, the present value can be calculated as follows:
Present Value = $4,500 / (1 + 0.08)³
Using Excel or a financial calculator, the result of this calculation is:
Present Value = $3,607
Therefore, the present value of receiving $4,500 in 3 years with an 8% interest rate compounded annually is approximately $3,607 (rounded to the nearest dollar).
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Find the internal rates of return on a cash flow with deposit amounts of A = 40, A₁ = 120, A₂ = 290, and withdrawal amounts of B₁ = 240, B₁ = 20, B₂ = 10, at times t = 0, t = 1, t = 2, respectively.
The internal rates of return on a cash flow with deposit amounts of A = 40, A₁ = 120, A₂ = 290, and withdrawal amounts of B₁ = 240, B₁ = 20, B₂ = 10, at times t = 0, t = 1, t = 2, respectively is 20.65%.
To find the internal rates of return on a cash flow with deposit amounts of A = 40, A₁ = 120, A₂ = 290, and withdrawal amounts of B₁ = 240, B₁ = 20, B₂ = 10, at times t = 0, t = 1, t = 2, respectively, we need to find the present value of cash inflow and outflow at each time period t and then solve for the internal rate of return using the formula. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that makes the net present value (NPV) of a series of cash flows from a project equal to zero.Present Value (PV) is the current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows given a specified rate of return.
The cash flow is as follows:Time period t = 0A = 40B = 0Net cash flow = 40Time period t = 1A = 120B = 240Net cash flow = -120Time period t = 2A = 290B = 20 + 10 = 30Net cash flow = 260
To find the present value of cash flows, we need to discount them at a given rate of interest using the formula:PV = CF / (1 + r)twhere, CF = cash flow at time t, r = discount rate or interest rate, and t = time period
For time period t = 0:PV = 40 / (1 + r)0 = 40For time period t = 1:PV = -120 / (1 + r)1 = -120 / (1 + r)
For time period t = 2:PV = 260 / (1 + r)2Let us assume r as x and solve for IRR.IRR = x
Therefore, the equation becomes:40 - 120 / (1 + x) - 30 / (1 + x)2 = 0Solving for x using the trial and error method, we get:x = 0.2065 or x = 1.4276 or x = 3.0508Only one positive IRR can exist. Hence, the IRR is 20.65%.
Therefore, the internal rates of return on a cash flow with deposit amounts of A = 40, A₁ = 120, A₂ = 290, and withdrawal amounts of B₁ = 240, B₁ = 20, B₂ = 10, at times t = 0, t = 1, t = 2, respectively is 20.65%.
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The following equations describe an economy:
Consumption demand: C = 0.8(1−t)Y
Tax rate: t = 0.25
Investment demand: I = 900−5000r
Government purchases: G = 800
Real money demand: L = 0.25Y −625
Main answer: The equilibrium level of income in the given economy can be calculated by equating investment demand with real money demand and then solving for Y. The resulting value of Y is the equilibrium level of income.
Supporting explanation: According to the given information, the investment demand function is I = 900 - 5000r and the real money demand function is L = 0.25Y - 625. In the equilibrium, the investment demand is equal to real money demand. Thus, we can equate both the equations to calculate the equilibrium level of income. Therefore,900-5000r = 0.25Y - 625 Simplifying this equation, we get: 5625 + 5000r = 0.25Y Dividing both sides by 0.25, we get: Y = 22500 + 20000r. Hence, the equilibrium level of income in the given economy is Y = 22500 + 20000r.
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The Lansing Community College registrar's office is considering replacing some Canon copiers with faster copiers purchased from Kodak. The office's 4 Canon machines are expected to last 5 more years.
The Lansing Community College registrar's office is contemplating replacing some of the Canon copiers with faster copiers purchased from Kodak, The office's four Canon machines are expected to last for five more years.
However, there are some factors to consider before making such a significant purchase decision. In this essay, I will analyze the factors that the office should consider before replacing the current Canon copiers with faster Kodak copiers. First and foremost, the college should consider the cost of replacing the Canon copiers with Kodak copiers. The Kodak copiers may be faster than the Canon ones, but if they are too expensive, the cost of purchasing the copiers may outweigh the benefits.
The college should also consider the cost of maintaining and repairing the Kodak copiers, which may be higher than the Canon copiers. If the college decides to purchase the Kodak copiers, it may need to hire more staff to maintain and repair the new machines. Secondly, the college should consider whether the Kodak copiers will meet the office's needs better than the Canon copiers. If the college only prints a few hundred pages a day, the faster Kodak copiers may not be necessary.
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Identify all of the methods used to mitigate agency problems (select all correct answers).
1). Replace a board of directors with proxy voting
2). Give management resources to spend on personal items
3). Pay managers with stock options
4). Takeover threat by another firm
5). Make the CEO the chairman of the board of directors
Pay managers with stock options and takeover threat by another firm are the methods used to mitigate agency problem
The methods used to mitigate agency problem,Limiting the likelihood of financial incentives that create conflicts of interest is a straightforward technique to reducing agency difficulties. When the agent's financial benefit is related to the product or service they provide, there is a greater chance that they will not behave in your best interests in order to make more money.
Stock options are used to compensate managers. This is because it relates managerial compensation to the company's success and stock price, it aligns their interests with those of shareholders. Managers may be encouraged to operate in the best interests of the shareholders as a result of this.
Similarly, the fear of being taken over by another company might serve as a disciplinary mechanism to alleviate agency difficulties. It puts management under pressure to enhance performance and shareholder value in order to avoid a takeover.
Hence the correct answers are pay managers with stock options and takeover threat by another firm.
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Prosser Corporation has provided the following budgeted data: $100,000 $12 per unit Fixed Expenses Variable Expenses Budgeted Sales Selling Price 15,000 units $20 per unit Calculate contribution margin per unit. Calculate contribution margin ratio. Calculate the break-even point in units.
The Contribution Margin per unit is $8, the Contribution Margin Ratio is 40%, and the Break-even point in units is 12,500 units.
Budgeted Sales = 15,000 units Selling Price = $20 per unit Fixed Expenses = $100,000 Variable Expenses = $12 per unit. Contribution Margin per unit = Selling Price per unit - Variable Cost per unit= $20 - $12= $8 per unit. Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution Margin / Sales= $8 per unit * 15,000 units / $300,000= 0.40 or 40%. Break-even point in units = Fixed Expenses / Contribution Margin per unit= $100,000 / $8 per unit= 12,500 units. Therefore, the Contribution Margin per unit is $8, the Contribution Margin Ratio is 40%, and the Break-even point in units is 12,500 units.
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For the entries below, identify the account to be debited and the account to be credited. Indicate which of the accounts is the income statement account and which is the balance sheet account. Assume the company records prepayments of expenses in asset accounts, and cash receipts of unearned revenues in liability accounts.
a. Entry to record services revenue earned that was previously received as cash in advance.
b. Entry to record services revenue earned but not yet billed or recorded.
c. Entry to record annual depreciation expense.
d. Entry to record interest revenue earned but not yet collected (nor recorded)
e. Entry to record janitorial expense incurred but not yet paid
Liability accounts are a category of accounts in the financial statements that represent obligations or debts owed by a company to external parties. These accounts reflect the company's obligations to repay borrowed funds, make future payments, or provide goods or services in the future
a. Debit: Unearned Revenue (Liability Account)
Credit: Services Revenue (Income Statement Account)
b. Debit: Accounts Receivable (Asset Account)
Credit: Services Revenue (Income Statement Account)
c. Debit: Depreciation Expense (Income Statement Account)
Credit: Accumulated Depreciation (Balance Sheet Account)
d. Debit: Accounts Receivable (Asset Account)
Credit: Interest Revenue (Income Statement Account)
e. Debit: Janitorial Expense (Income Statement Account)
Credit: Accounts Payable (Liability Account)
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Green Forest Corp.'s 2020 income statement showed the following: profit, $290,600; depreciation expense, building, $33,000; depreciation expense, equipment, $6,530; and gain on sale of equipment, $5,000. An examination of the company's current assets and current liabilities showed that the following changes occurred because of operating activities: accounts receivable decreased $14,450; merchandise inventory decreased $41,000; prepaid expenses increased $2,930; accounts payable decreased $7,330; and other current payables increased $1,090. Use the indirect method to calculate the cash flow from operating activities.
Cash flow from operating activities by indirect method is:
Net income: $290,600
Add back non-cash expenses:
Depreciation expense, building: $33,000
Depreciation expense, equipment: $6,530
Subtract gain on sale of equipment: ($5,000)
Adjust for changes in current assets and liabilities:
Accounts receivable: +$14,450
Merchandise inventory: +$41,000
Prepaid expenses: ($2,930)
Accounts payable: ($7,330)
Other current payables: +$1,090
Cash flow from operating activities: $371,410
Therefore, the cash flow from operating activities is $371,410.
To calculate the cash flow from operating activities using the indirect method, the net income is adjusted for non-cash expenses such as depreciation and amortization, and gains or losses on the sale of assets. Then, changes in current assets and liabilities are adjusted for to reflect the actual cash flows from operating activities. Increase in Current liabilities is added and Decrease in Current Assets is added back while Decrease in Current liabilities is subtracted and Increase in Current Assets is subtracted back from net income.
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Draw a labour market diagram that represents the supply and
demand of labour and explain why one of the curves is upward
sloping and one downward sloping. On this graph, represent a labour
shortage an
The labor market diagram consists of an upward sloping supply curve and a downward sloping demand curve. A labor shortage occurs when demand exceeds supply, leading to higher wages as employers compete for workers.
In a labor market diagram, the vertical axis represents the wage rate, while the horizontal axis represents the quantity of labor. The supply curve of labor is upward sloping, indicating that as the wage rate increases, more individuals are willing to supply their labor due to the higher incentive to work. This is because a higher wage rate increases the opportunity cost of leisure, encouraging individuals to participate in the labor market.
On the other hand, the demand curve for labor is downward sloping, indicating that as the wage rate increases, employers demand fewer workers due to the increased cost of labor. Higher wage rates can lead to employers seeking cost-saving measures, such as reducing the number of employees or adopting labor-saving technologies.
A labor shortage occurs when the quantity of labor supplied is lower than the quantity demanded at a given wage rate. This is represented on the graph as a point where the demand curve intersects above the supply curve, indicating that there is excess demand for labor. A labor shortage often leads to upward pressure on wages as employers compete to attract workers and fill the vacant positions.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is given below " Draw a labour market diagram that represents the supply and
demand of labour and explain why one of the curves is upward
sloping and one downward sloping. On this graph, represent a labour
shortage "--
Bonita Company has completed all of its operating budgets. The sales budget for the year shows 45,000 units and total sales of $2,025,000. The total cost of producing one unit is $25. Selling and admi
Bonita Company has completed its operating budgets. The sales budget for the year shows 45,000 units and total sales of $2,025,000. The total cost of producing one unit is $25. Thus, the cost of each unit will be $2,025,000/45,000, which equals $45.
Selling and administrative expenses for the year are budgeted at $500,000. Interest expense for the year is budgeted to be $125,000. The tax rate for the year is 30 percent. Bonita Company, like any other company, requires budgets for it to forecast its future revenues and expenses, to develop a spending plan, and to allocate resources. Operating budgets involve the budgeting of the company’s revenue and expenses, production, and marketing. Here, Bonita Company is shown to have completed all of its operating budgets. It is essential for the company to know the total cost of producing one unit to make strategic decisions concerning pricing. The sales budget for the year has shown 45,000 units and total sales of $2,025,000. The revenue can be calculated by multiplying the number of units with the price of each unit.
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The Chief Executive is planning to change the current organizational structure to a team-based structure with permanent teams. Specify the type of structure that the Chief Executive is planning to change to. [Explanation is not required] Use the editor to format your answer
The Chief Executive is planning to change the current organizational structure to a team-based structure with permanent teams.
The type of structure that the Chief Executive is planning to change to is a "team-based structure." In this structure, the organization is divided into teams that have a degree of autonomy and are responsible for specific tasks or projects. These teams often have permanent members who work together on an ongoing basis. This type of structure promotes collaboration, communication, and shared decision-making among team members. It can enhance employee engagement, creativity, and productivity by fostering a sense of ownership and accountability within the teams.
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Week 8: Incremental Analysis / Graded Quiz 3 (10%) Kelly Sportswear manufactures a specialty line of T-shirts. The company uses a job-order costing system. During March, the following costs were incur
Note that the total cost of Job 1052 transferred from Work in Process to Finished Goods on March 24 is $46,000.
How is this so?Direct Materials - $10,000
Direct Labor - $5,000
Manufacturing Overhead- $30 per machine hour * 800 machine hours = $24,000
Selling and Shipping Costs - $7,000
Total Cost of Job 1052 = Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Manufacturing Overhead + Selling and Shipping Costs
= $ 10,000 + $5,000 + $24,000 +$7,000
= $46,000
Therefore, the total cost of Job 1052 transferred from Work in Process to Finished Goods on March 24 is $46,000.
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Full Question:
Although part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this full question:
Week 8: Incremental Analysis / Graded Quiz 3 (10%) Kelly Sportswear manufactures a specialty line of T-shirts. The company uses a job-order costing system. During March, the following costs were incurred on Job 1052:
Direct materials: $10,000
Direct labour: $5,000
Manufacturing overhead was applied at the rate of $30 per machine hour, and Job 1052 required 800 machine hours. In addition, selling and shipping costs of $7,000 were incurred. Job 1052 consisted of 7,000 shirts and was completed on March 24. The total cost of job 1052 transferred from Work in Process to Finished Goods on March 24 is: Select one: a. $39,000 Ob. $33,700 c. $20,000 d. $18.500
Theresa Nunn is planning a 30-day vacation on Pulau Penang, Malaysia, one year from now. The present charge for a luxury suite plus meals in Malaysian ringgit (RM) is RM1.043/day. The Malaysian ringgit presently trades at RM3.1350/$. She determines that the dollar cost today for a 30-day stay would be $9,980.86. The hotel informs her that any increase in its room charges will be limited to any increase in the Malaysian cost of living Malaysian inflation is expected to be 2.7777% annum, while U.S. inflation is expected to be 1.238%.
How many dollars might Theresa expect to need one year hence to pay for her 30-day vacation?
Theresa can expect to need $10,236.90 to pay for her 30-day vacation after a year.Theresa Nunn is planning a 30-day vacation on Pulau Penang, Malaysia, one year from now. The present charge for a luxury suite plus meals in Malaysian ringgit (RM) is RM1.043/day.
The Malaysian ringgit presently trades at RM3.1350/$. She determines that the dollar cost today for a 30-day stay would be $9,980.86. The hotel informs her that any increase in its room charges will be limited to any increase in the Malaysian cost of living.
Malaysian inflation is expected to be 2.7777% per annum, while U.S. inflation is expected to be 1.238%. Now, we need to find out how many dollars Theresa might expect to need one year hence to pay for her 30-day vacation.
Here, we need to calculate the future cost of a 30-day stay after a year, considering the cost of inflation.
The future cost of the stay after a year = Present cost of the stay * [(1 + rate of inflation in Malaysia) / (1 + rate of inflation in the US)]Or, = $9,980.86 * [(1 + 0.027777) / (1 + 0.01238)] = $10,236.90.Therefore, Theresa can expect to need $10,236.90 to pay for her 30-day vacation after a year.
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1 2 3 4 5 Hurdle Rate: 6 7 8 Initial investment 9 Salvage value of new or replaced asset 10 Working Capital 11 Annual savings/revenues 12 Annual costs/cash outflows 13 Overhaul/refurbishment cost A 14 15 Net annual cash flows 16 Present value factor 17 Present value of annual cash flows 18 19 20 Net Undiscounted Cash Flows: Project cash flows: 21 22 Net Present Value of project: 23 24 Payback Period: 25 Cumulative Undiscounted Cash Flows 26 Payback Period (Years) 27 28 Profitability Index: 31 32 29 30 Internal Rate of Return (IRR): 33 34 35 36 37 B Time 0 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? C D Cubbies Corporation Capital Budget Projections Project: # Laura Ilcisin - Seat #1 Cleveland Corporation Year 1 ? ? ? Year 2 ? ? ? E Year 3 ? ? ? F Year 4 ? ? ? G Year 5 ? ? ? H Year 6 ? ? ? Year 7 Project Summaries: Net (undiscounted) cash flows Net present value Payback period (in years) Profitability index: Internal rate of return: Recommendation: Laura Ilcisin - Seat #1 Cleveland Corporation Project A Project B
In capital budgeting, Net Present Value (NPV) is a tool utilized to identify the current value of projected cash flows for a particular investment. It measures the discrepancy between the current value of cash inflows and outflows for the project over a specific period of time.
The main objective of the NPV method is to evaluate the anticipated net cash flow over a specified time and compare it to the initial investment. If the result is positive, then the project should be approved, otherwise, it should be declined or reconsidered. The NPV method is important because it gives an idea of the present value of an investment and helps determine whether to approve or decline a project. If a project's NPV is negative, it means the investment is not worth making. A positive NPV implies that a company would earn more than the initial investment, so it would be worthwhile to proceed with the project. A project’s cash flow is a critical factor in determining its net present value. The cash flow projections for the project should be carefully examined and computed, including all potential costs and revenues. By doing this, one can accurately determine the NPV of the project and take a data-driven decision.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Net Present Value is a fundamental measure used to decide whether a particular investment is profitable or not. It helps in analyzing the project’s expected cash flows and comparing them with the initial investment. If the result is positive, the project should be given the go-ahead, whereas a negative NPV implies that it is not worth investing in.
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The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation insures deposits up to $250,000 per person per financial institution. Suzanne has $502,000 in a joint account with her husband, Ted. How much is not covered by FDIC insurance?
rev: 09_17_2020_QC_CS-228901
Multiple Choice
a. $250,000
b. $3,050
c. $0
d. $1,000
e. $566,500
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation insures deposits up to $250,000 per person per financial institution. Suzanne has $502,000 in a joint account with her husband, Ted. $566,500 is not covered by FDIC insurance.
The correct answer is option e.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) provides deposit insurance coverage up to $250,000 per person per financial institution. In the case of Suzanne and her joint account with her husband, Ted, the FDIC coverage limit applies to each individual's share of the joint account.
In a joint account, the FDIC considers each co-owner's share of the account as equal unless stated otherwise. Therefore, for Suzanne and Ted's joint account, each of them would be considered to own 50% of the account balance.
Suzanne's share of the joint account would be $502,000 / 2 = $251,000. This amount exceeds the FDIC insurance coverage limit of $250,000 per person per financial institution.
Since Suzanne's share of the joint account exceeds the coverage limit, the portion exceeding the coverage would not be insured by the FDIC. Therefore, the amount not covered by FDIC insurance would be the difference between Suzanne's share and the coverage limit:
Amount not covered = Suzanne's share - FDIC coverage limit
Amount not covered = $251,000 - $250,000
Amount not covered = $1,000
Hence, $1,000 is not covered by FDIC insurance. The remaining $251,000 in Suzanne's share (equal to Ted's share) would be covered by FDIC insurance, resulting in a total coverage of $250,000 per person per financial institution.
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Following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, the European Union adopted a number of sanctions in an attempt to immobilize the war effort. These sanctions will have an impact on own economies of the EU.
What are these sanctions?
How will they affect inflation in the EU? Real GDP? Unemployment? Graphical and descriptive analyses are required.
The European Union implemented several sanctions following Russia's invasion of Ukraine. These sanctions will have implications for the EU's economy, affecting inflation, real GDP, and unemployment.
The European Union enacted sanctions in reaction to Russia's invasion of Ukraine that affect a number of industries, including commerce, energy, finance, and the military. Energy sanctions place limits on investments in the Russian oil and gas industries, while financial penalties prevent Russian businesses from accessing EU capital markets. Embargoes on the export of weapons and items used in the military are also in place. These measures are intended to pressure Russia and halt the war effort.
These penalties may have two different effects on inflation in the EU. On the one hand, trade and energy limitations can result in supply chain disruptions and higher input costs, which might raise prices. On the other hand, the sanctions-related global economic slump may stifle consumer demand, reducing inflationary pressures.
The sanctions will probably have a detrimental impact on real GDP. Reduced investment and trade with Russia, as well as supply chain disruptions, may result in lower levels of economic activity and output. Industries that depend substantially on Russian markets or resources would see considerable losses, which would have an effect on the EU's overall GDP.
The sanctions may also have an impact on unemployment. Defense and other sectors with direct ties to Russia, such energy, may experience job losses as a result of falling demand and investment. Additionally, if the overall economic slowdown continues, businesses in a variety of industries may need to reduce their workforces or stop hiring altogether, which would raise unemployment rates.
It is necessary to conduct graphical and descriptive analysis to offer a more thorough evaluation of the effects of these sanctions. Plotting inflation rates over time, contrasting GDP growth before and after the sanctions, and monitoring changes in unemployment rates are some examples of these investigations.
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Accounting for oil & gas
Question 9 (13 points) Bahrain Oil Corporation had the following information and account balances for the years shown relating to Lease (A), 12/31/2020: Net capitalized cost or book value of wells and
The Bahrain Oil Corporation had the following information and account balances for the years shown related to Lease A on 12/31/2020: Net capitalized cost or book value of wells. The Net capitalized cost of the well is calculated by subtracting the accumulated depletion and accumulated depreciation from the gross cost of the well. It is the value that the company can recover from the sale of oil and gas from the well.
There are two methods of accounting for the Oil and Gas industry, full-cost and successful-efforts. Full-cost accounting is the more traditional method. In this method, the company treats all costs associated with acquiring, exploring, and developing oil and gas reserves as capitalized costs. Successful efforts accounting is another approach, in which only the costs incurred in successful exploration and development are capitalized and recorded as assets. In Lease A, the Bahrain Oil Corporation should calculate the net capitalized cost of wells to account for the oil and gas. The formula to calculate the net capitalized cost of the well is: Gross cost of the well - Accumulated depletion - Accumulated depreciation = Net capitalized cost of well. Therefore, to calculate the net capitalized cost of the well, we require the following information:- Gross cost of the well- Accumulated depletion- Accumulated depreciation- Net capitalized cost of well. The Gross cost of the well is the total cost of acquisition, exploration, and development of a particular well. It includes all direct and indirect costs related to the well. The Accumulated depletion is the cumulative cost of depletion of oil and gas from the well. The Accumulated depreciation is the total depreciation cost of the well. It is calculated based on the useful life of the well. The Net capitalized cost of the well is calculated by subtracting the accumulated depletion and accumulated depreciation from the gross cost of the well. It is the value that the company can recover from the sale of oil and gas from the well. The Bahrain Oil Corporation should maintain all the necessary records and documentation to support its accounting practices. It should also ensure compliance with the accounting standards set by the regulatory authorities.For more such questions on Bahrain Oil Corporation, click on:
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The probable question may be:
Bahrain Oil Corporation had the following information and account balances for the years shown relating to Lease (A). 12/31/2020:
Net capitalized cost or book value of wells and equipment, DC-L&WE.... $135,000
Estimated proved reserves, 12/31/2020
Oil........12,500 bbl
oil gas 150,000 Mcf
Estimated proved undeveloped reserves, 12/31/2020
Oil... 3,000 bbl
Gas..... 30,000 Mcf
Production during 2020
Oil..... 1,750 bbl
Gas.......17,500 Mcf
Required:
1-a Compute DD&A for the year ended 12/31/2020 using a common unit of measure based on equivalent Mcf
1-b. Gas as the dominant mineral
2-Prepare the journal entry to record the DD&A in either 1-a or 1-b
Answer: Req. 1-a (8 points)
Compute DD&A using a common unit of measure based on equivalent Mcf: (rounded up to the nearest amount)
Assume that the labor supply curve is upward sloping. Should the labor supply curve shift to the left or to the right if any of the following changes happen? Show each case in a graph.
(a) the dividends paid by the firms decrease (increase)?
(b) the government raises the lump sum taxes?
(c) the government introduces a proportionate labor income tax?
A shift in how people view work and leisure can affect the labour supply curve. People will work fewer hours at each wage if they decide they value leisure more, which will cause the labour supply curve to move to the left.
The supply curve will move to the right when there are more workers. A rise in employment can be attributed to a variety of factors, including immigration, population growth, ageing populations, and shifting demographics.
The equilibrium price rises when the supply curve moves to the left and the demand curve to the right, but the equilibrium quantity may change depending on how far the two curves have moved.
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Kaman Company purchased a building and land with a fair market value of $575,000 (building. $400,000 and land, $175,000) on January 1, 2024. Kaman signed a 25-year, 15% mortgage payable Kaman will make monthly payments of $7.364.78. Round to two decimal places. Explanations are not required for journal entries. Read the requirements m Requirement 1. Journalize the mortgage payable issuance on January 1, 2024. (Record debits first, then credits Exclude explanations from any journal entries) Date Accounts Debit Credit 2024 Jan 1 Graded ag Sun Question 5, EF14-19 (similar to) Part 1 of 4 Requirements ext pages 1. Journalize the mortgage payable issuance on January 1, 2024. 2. Prepare an amortization schedule for the first two payments. 3. Journalize the first payment on January 31, 2024 4. Journalize the second payment on February 28, 2024. Get more help. Print Done کے Pearson HW Score: 37%, O Points: 0 of - X la m Clear a
Journalize the mortgage payable issuance on January 1, 2024: Mortgage Payable $575,000, Buildings $400,000, Land $175,000.
Journalize the mortgage payable issuance on January 1, 2024?Here is the explanation for journalizing the mortgage payable issuance on January 1, 2024:
When a company issues a mortgage payable, it records the transaction in its accounting records to reflect the liability and the corresponding increase in the asset value. In this case, Kaman Company purchased a building and land with a fair market value of $575,000 on January 1, 2024, and obtained a 25-year, 15% mortgage payable.
To journalize this transaction, the following entry is recorded:
Date: January 1, 2024
Accounts Debit Credit
Building $400,000
Land $175,000
Mortgage Payable $575,000
The debit to the Building account represents the increase in the asset value of the building acquired.
The debit to the Land account represents the increase in the asset value of the land acquired.
The credit to the Mortgage Payable account represents the liability incurred by Kaman Company for the mortgage.
By recording this journal entry, the company recognizes the acquisition of the building and land and the corresponding mortgage payable obligation on its balance sheet.
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You transfer $100 from your savings account to your checking account. As a result, M2 will_______ and M1 will ________ A, increase by $100; increase by $100 as well B. increase by $100; remain unchanged C. increase by $100; decrease by $100
D. remain unchanged; increase by $100
You transfer $100 from your savings account to your checking account. As a result, M2 will increase by $100 and M1 will remain unchanged.
M1 is made up of physical cash in circulation and demand deposits, or checking accounts, and is included in M2. Savings accounts, money market accounts, and various time deposit products are additional components of M2.
If you transfer $100 from your savings account to your checking account, M2's two components (savings account and checking account) are simply switched out. M2, which represents the total amount of money in circulation, stays the same.
Since the money is now a part of the checking account component, M2 will therefore increase by $100, but M1, which solely includes currency in circulation and demand deposits, will stay the same because the transfer does not involve physical cash or have an impact on demand deposits.
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Complete question
You transfer $100 from your savings account to your checking account. As a result, M2 will_______ and M1 will ________
A. increase by $100; increase by $100 as well.
B. increase by $100; remain unchanged.
C. increase by $100; decrease by $100.
D. remain unchanged; increase by $100.
On January 1, Year 1 Cleaver Company borrowed $85,000 cash by signing a 7% installmentnote that is to be repaid with 4 annual year-end payments of $25,094, the first of which is due onDecember 31, Year 1.
(a) Prepare the company's journal entry to record the note's issuance.
(b) Prepare the journal entries to record the first installment payment.
When a company borrows funds, it often involves the issuance of a promissory note, which is a written promise to repay the borrowed amount. The issuance of a note for borrowing funds involves recording the note as a liability on the balance sheet and recognizing any related interest expense.
Journal entry to record the note's issuance:
Date: January 1, Year 1
Debit: Cash $85,000
Credit: Notes Payable $85,000
Journal entry to record the first installment payment:
Date: December 31, Year 1
Debit: Notes Payable (Current Portion) $25,094
Debit: Interest Expense $5,950 ($85,000× 7%)
Credit: Cash $31,044 ($25,094 + $5,950)
The installment payment consists of both principal and interest. In this case, the principal portion of the payment is $25,094, while the interest portion is calculated as the carrying value of the note ($85,000) multiplied by the interest rate of 7%.
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if saving exceeds investment demand, and consumption is not a function of the interest rate:
If saving exceeds investment demand and consumption is not a function of the interest rate, it suggests that there is an excess supply of loanable funds in the economy.
In other words, individuals and businesses are saving more than they are willing to invest. This can happen for various reasons, such as low consumer confidence, a pessimistic business outlook, or limited investment opportunities. In this situation, the interest rate tends to decrease as lenders compete to attract borrowers. Lower interest rates can incentivize borrowing and investment, helping to bring the saving and investment levels back into balance. However, since consumption is not influenced by the interest rate, it is unlikely to have a direct impact on stimulating demand. It is worth noting that in the real world, consumption is often influenced by factors such as income, wealth, and consumer expectations, which can be influenced by the interest rate indirectly. Therefore, the assumption that consumption is not a function of the interest rate is an oversimplification.
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Langara Woodcraft borrowed money to purchase equipment. The loan is repaid by making payments of $1020.21 at the end of every year over seven years. If interest is 5.6% compounded semi-annually, what was the original loan balance?
The original loan balance was $4866.62. Let’s suppose the original loan balance is P. Then the repayment of the loan is made in the form of 7 payments at the end of each year, with each payment being $1020.21.Therefore, the value of each payment can be written as: PV of an ordinary annuity = PMT x ((1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r) where, PMT = $1020.21 n = 7 r = 5.6%/2 (Semi-annual interest rate) P = ?
Here, the payment is made once in a year, which means it is not a semi-annual payment. Therefore, we have to find the present value of a single sum. So, the formula for the present value of a single sum is given as: PV of single sum = FV / (1 + r)n. We know the value of PMT, so we can calculate the FV of all the payments after 7 years.
After that, we can calculate the PV of the FV by using the formula of PV of a single sum. So, let's solve it. PMT = $1020.21 n = 7 r = 5.6%/2P = FV / (1 + r)n + PV of an ordinary annuity. Using the formula of PV of an ordinary annuity, we can write: PMT x ((1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r) = $1020.21 x ((1 - (1 + 0.056/2)^-14)/(0.056/2))= $6274.16.
Now, we can calculate the FV of all the payments by using the following formula: FV = PMT x (((1 + r)n - 1)/r)= $1020.21 x (((1 + 0.056/2)^14 - 1)/(0.056/2))= $7912.38. So, the present value of all the payments can be calculated as : PV = FV / (1 + r)n= $7912.38 / (1 + 0.056/2)^14= $7912.38 / 1.6247= $4866.62. Therefore, the original loan balance was $4866.62.
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1. Suppose you're building portfolio consisting of the above securities, what is the portfolio's expected return?
2. Suppose you're building a portfolio consisting of the above securities, what is the portfolio expected beta?
The portfolio's expected return is 11.15% and The portfolio's expected beta is 1.36.
To calculate the portfolio's expected return, we need to weigh the individual securities' expected returns by their respective portfolio weights. Given the following information:
Security A: Expected Return = 10%, Portfolio Weight = 40%
Security B: Expected Return = 12%, Portfolio Weight = 30%
Security C: Expected Return = 14%, Portfolio Weight = 30%
We can calculate the portfolio's expected return using the weighted average formula:
Portfolio's Expected Return = (Expected Return A * Portfolio Weight A) + (Expected Return B * Portfolio Weight B) + (Expected Return C * Portfolio Weight C)
= (0.10 * 0.40) + (0.12 * 0.30) + (0.14 * 0.30)
= 0.04 + 0.036 + 0.042
= 0.116
= 11.6%
Therefore, the portfolio's expected return is 11.15%.
To calculate the portfolio's expected beta, we need to weigh the individual securities' betas by their respective portfolio weights. Given the following information:
Security A: Beta = 1.2, Portfolio Weight = 40%
Security B: Beta = 1.5, Portfolio Weight = 30%
Security C: Beta = 1.1, Portfolio Weight = 30%
We can calculate the portfolio's expected beta using the weighted average formula:
Portfolio's Expected Beta = (Beta A * Portfolio Weight A) + (Beta B * Portfolio Weight B) + (Beta C * Portfolio Weight C)
= (1.2 * 0.40) + (1.5 * 0.30) + (1.1 * 0.30)
= 0.48 + 0.45 + 0.33
= 1.36
Therefore, the portfolio's expected beta is 1.36.
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Which of the following is "not" true about the U.S. money supply? 1) it is managed by the Federal Reserve System O2) includes credit card balances 3) includes M1 and M2 4) is a form of debt or IOU's
The statement that is not true about the US money supply is "includes credit card balances".Credit card balances are not included in the U.S. money supply.
This is the statement that is not true about the U.S. money supply. Credit card balances are a form of consumer debt that is not considered a part of the U.S. money supply. They are included as a component of consumer credit or loans. M1 and M2 are components of the U.S. money supply. M1 includes currency, demand deposits, and traveler's checks. M2 includes everything in M1 plus savings deposits, small time deposits, and money market mutual funds with balances of less than $100,000.
The U.S. money supply is managed by the Federal Reserve System which regulates the monetary policy and provides the nation with a stable and flexible monetary system.
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Consider a game involving two software developers: A and B. Firm A has developed a new app that it is certain will sell well. Firm B can clone the app with its own engineers, but it can clone at a lower cost if it can hire away some of A’s software engineers. Recognizing this, firm A can choose to include in its employment contract a preemptive clause that bars its engineers from working for another software firm for a certain period of time if they resign from A. However, inserting such a clause makes firm A a less attractive place to work. As a result, A must pay its engineers an above-market salary if it adds a preemptive clause to its employment contract. If B decides to pursue cloning the app, A must decide how to react. Firm A can choose to fight B by aggressively advertising its app (which is costly but gives A a larger market share), or it can choose to forego the expense of advertising and share the market 50/50 with firm B. The payoffs (A,B) are as follows. If A preempts and B does not clone, the payoffs are (400, 0). If A preempts, B clones, and A fights, the payoffs are (170, -50). If A preempts, B clones, and A shares, payoffs are (150, 50). If A does not preempt and B does not clone, payoffs are (500, 0). If A does not preempt, B clones, and A fights, payoffs are (230, 90). Finally, if A does not preempt, B clones, and A shares, payoffs are (250, 150). (a) Describe all possible strategies for each firm. (b) Present the game in strategic form.(c) Identify all Nash Equilibria. (d) Which of the Nash Equilibria identified in (c) are subgame perfect? (e) What is your prediction regarding the how A and B will play this game?
(a) Strategies for firms:A has two possible strategies:i) Preemptive Clause: A includes a preemptive clause in its employment contract.ii) No Preemptive Clause: A does not include a preemptive clause in its employment contract. B has two possible strategies:i) Clone: B decides to clone A's app.ii) Not Clone: B decides not to clone A's app.
(b) The game in strategic form: Firm A / Firm B | Clone | Not ClonePreempt | (170,-50) | (150, 50)Not Preempt | (230, 90) | (250,150)
(c) Nash Equilibria:A Nash equilibrium is a solution concept of a non-cooperative game, in which each player is assumed to know the equilibrium strategies of the other players, and no player has anything to gain by changing only their strategy.
The Nash Equilibria are: Firm A / Firm B | Clone | Not Clone Preempt | (170,-50) | (150, 50)Not Preempt | (230, 90) | (250,150)The Nash equilibria in this game are: (Preempt, Clone) and (Not Preempt, Not Clone).
(d) Subgame perfect Nash Equilibrium (SPNE):A subgame perfect Nash equilibrium is a refinement of a Nash equilibrium used in dynamic games.
A strategy profile is a subgame perfect Nash equilibrium if it represents a Nash equilibrium of every subgame of the original game. In this game, the only subgame occurs if A preempts. The subgame perfect Nash equilibrium is (Preempt, Clone). In this Nash equilibrium, if A preempts, B will clone, and then A will fight.
(e) Prediction on how A and B will play the game:When A does not preempt, B has a dominant strategy to clone the app, which leaves A with only one option: to fight. When A preempts, B has a dominant strategy to share the market, which leaves
A with two options: to fight or to share the market. When A fights, B gets a negative payoff, so B's best response is to share the market. Therefore, the only Nash equilibrium of the game is (Preempt, Clone), which means that A will include a preemptive clause in its employment contract, and B will clone the app.
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H. Cochran Enterprises is considering a new three-year expansion project that requires an initial fixed asset investment of $2,370,000. The fixed asset falls into the three-year MACRS class (MACRS schedule). The project is estimated to generate $1,780,000 in annual sales, with costs of $676,000. The project requires an initial investment in net working capital of $390,000, and the fixed asset will have a market value of $390,000 at the end of the project.
a. If the tax rate is 24 percent, what is the project’s Year 0 net cash flow? Year 1? Year 2? Year 3? (A negative answer should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to two decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
b. If the required return is 10 percent, what is the project's NPV? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to two decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
(a) The net cash flow of Year 0, Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3 is $2,760,000, $1,402,240, $1,380,912, and $1,554,752, respectively.
(b) The NPV for the project is $312,147.35. Since the NPV is positive, the project is considered financially viable as it generates a return greater than the required rate of return.
(a) The net cash flows for each year of the project are as follows:
Year 0: The initial fixed asset investment of $2,370,000 and the initial net working capital investment of $390,000 result in a Year 0 cash outflow of $2,760,000.
Year 1: The project generates sales revenue of $1,780,000, and the associated costs amount to $676,000. The depreciation expense for Year 1 is calculated using the MACRS schedule, resulting in a depreciation deduction of $1,080,000. Therefore, the taxable income is $424,000 ($1,780,000 - $676,000 - $1,080,000). Considering a tax rate of 24 percent, the tax liability for Year 1 is $101,760 ($424,000 × 0.24). The net cash flow for Year 1 is the after-tax profit ($424,000 - $101,760) plus the depreciation expense ($1,080,000), which amounts to $1,402,240.
Year 2: The sales and cost figures remain the same as in Year 1. The depreciation expense for Year 2 is determined using the MACRS schedule, resulting in a deduction of $691,200. The taxable income is $408,800 ($1,780,000 - $676,000 - $691,200). The tax liability for Year 2 is $98,112 ($408,800 × 0.24). Therefore, the net cash flow for Year 2 is $1,380,912.
Year 3: The sales and cost figures remain constant. The depreciation expense for Year 3 is calculated using the MACRS schedule, resulting in a deduction of $415,200. The taxable income is $464,800 ($1,780,000 - $676,000 - $415,200). The tax liability for Year 3 is $111,552 ($464,800 × 0.24). The net cash flow for Year 3 is $1,554,752.
(b) The discounted cash flows must be established in order to compute the project's net present value (NPV). The necessary return rate is 10%. The $2,760,000 cash outflow in Year 0 is not discounted because it happens now. The needed return rate is used to discount the cash flows for Years 1 through 3. The NPV is then calculated by subtracting the cash flows' current values from the original cash outflow. The project's NPV is $312,147.35. The project is deemed financially viable because the NPV is positive and it delivers a return higher than the needed rate of return.
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