Please help me with your the question attached below. Please show work I would like to learn this.

THANK YOU!

Answer:

Yes! Integers can be negative! -3, -4, -9, -2... You name it!

Answer:

Yes! Integers are whole numbers so, that includes negative numbers! As an example [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex] is not an integer!

Hope this Helps! :)

Have any questions? Ask below in the comments and I will try my best to answer.

-SGO

Answer:

D. f(x)= (x+2i) (x+3i) (x-2i) (x-3i)

Step-by-step explanation:

Correct on edge 2020

The polynomial with a leading coefficient of 1 and roots 2i and 3i with multiplicity 1 is

f(x) = (x – 2i)(x - 3i)

Option A is the correct answer.

Polynomial is an equation written as the sum of terms of the form kx^n.

where k and n are positive integers.

We have,

f(x) = (x - 2i)(x - 3i)

It has two roots of 2i and 3i with multiplicity 1.

x² - 3ix - 2ix - 6

x² - 5ix - 6

The leading coefficient is 1.

Thus,

f(x) = (x – 2i)(x - 3i) has a leading coefficient of 1 and roots 2i and 3i with multiplicity 1.

Learn more about polynomials here:

https://brainly.com/question/2284746

#SPJ2

Answer:

13/12 or 1 1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

find the common denominator

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope (m) =y2-y1 / x2-x1

= - 1-4/2-(-3)

= - 5/2+3

= - 5/5

- 1

Answer:

[tex]2 sin^2 \theta[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the scenario, the following information is given:

[tex]= \frac{sec^2 \theta - 1 }{sec^2 \theta}[/tex]

[tex]= (\frac{1}{\frac{cos^2\theta}{\frac{1}{cos^2\theta} }} - 1)[/tex]

[tex]= 1 - cos^2\theta\\\\= 1 - (1 - 2 sin^2 \theta)\\\\= 2 sin^2 \theta[/tex]

Therefore for the given equation, the answer is [tex]2 sin^2 \theta[/tex]

Answer:

8mps

Explantion:

200 / 25 = 8

8 miles per second.

8mps * 25 seconds = 200 miles

Answer:

average=total distance/time

average = 200/25 =8 m/s

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:-4 > -5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b -4 <-5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b= 49 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

That is a 90 degree angle. And 90-41 is 49

Answer: acute

Step-by-step explanation:did the test

Answer:

f(x) = 6ˣ⁻⁷-3

Step-by-step explanation:

The basic transformations of an exponential function from the parent function can be given by the equation:

f(x) = b^x [parent exponential function]

f(x) = ab^((x/c)-h) + k [transformation of parent exponential function]

Where b is the parent growth or decay, a is the vertical stretch or compression, c is the horizontal stretch or compression, h is the horizontal translation, and k is the vertical translation.

Given a translation down 3 units, and another translation right 7 units, we are only using h, and k.

Given that our original function is g(x) = 6ˣ. We know our parental growth or b is 6. So just substitute our quantities and solve:

f(x) = g(x-7) - 3 → (1)6^((x/1)-7) - 3 → 6^(x-7) - 3 → 6ˣ⁻⁷-3.

Answer:

f(x) = 6ˣ⁻⁷-3

Step-by-step explanation: I took the test

Answer:

5.14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the correct answer would be B

( 18-3 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 2/9 x = 18; If the total amount of space is 18 inches, and each book is 2/9ths of an inch thick, you have to use x to figure out the missing value of how many books will fit

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The ratios are not equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

First, in order to find the ratios, we have to change the month to the amount of days.

There are 30 days in April, so we will use this for the ratio.

The ratio for the 3 day weekend is 5:3

The ratio for the month of April is 60:30, which can be simplified to 2:1

So, the ratios are not equivalent, because 5:3 is not equal to 2:1

Part of a financial advisor's job is to allocate money in the best available asset or security (eg: stocks and bonds). So they look at market data and use mathematical models to help judge on where to put money. Their goal is to so called "beat the market", meaning they want to earn the best return compared to other players in the market. Doing so will allow them to "buy low, sell high" which is a common cliche in finance. Though it's a very good rule to follow of course.

The efficient market hypothesis says that whatever the stock price is currently, it reflects everything about that company. In other words, there are no hidden facts that may surprise investors to drastically change the price of the stock. All information is completely transparent. What this means is that anyone can determine where to put their money without the need for a financial advisor.

I don't think demand would be completely wiped out since even if in a 100% transparent environment, people would still prefer to have others manage their money or not want to deal with complicated math formulas. However, demand would be reduced to some degree. In reality, there are always hidden factors that don't fully contribute to the cost of a security, which is why the efficient market hypothesis isn't fully applicable in every situation. So this is likely why financial advisors are in demand and are paid well.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the cost per pie is less.

Answer:

7.65

Step-by-step explanation:

The total cost for 8 is 20.40, so you want to find what the cost for one panel is by dividing the total cost by the amount, which would be 20.40/8=2.55 then you want to know how much 3 of them cost, to find that you just multiply the cost of one of them by three, which would be 7.65

Answer:

D. 70°

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

m<DGB = 35°

m<CGF = 75°

Required:

m<AGE

SOLUTION:

m<EGD = m<CGF (vertical angles are congruent)

m<EGD = 75°

m<AGE + m<EGD + m<DGB = 180° (angles on a straight line)

m<AGE + 75° + 35° = 180° (substitution)

m<AGE + 110° = 180°

Subtract 110 from each side of the equation

m<AGE = 180° - 110°

m<AGE = 70°

Step-by-step explanation:

b Jawaban

semoga bermanfaat ✨⬅️

Answer:

376 feet high standard

Step-by-step explanation:

above sea level its positive

Answer:

The factorial of 11! is exactly 39916800

The number of trailing 0s in 11! is 2

The number of digits in 11 factorial is 8.

The factorial of 11 is calculated as below:

11! = 11 • 10 • 9 • 8 • 7 ... 3 • 2 • 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

60 degres

Step-by-step explanation:

how you do it is 40 + 40 then 280 / 4

Answer:

-8.2

Step-by-step explanation:

(-0.6) - (7.6)

-0.6 -7.6 = -8.2

When there are two negatives, you add them together to get your negative answer.

Answer:

227.5

Step-by-step explanation:

x=Kofi

x+75=Kojo

   x+x+75=380

    2x+75=380

          2x=305

             x=152.5

       Kojo=152.5 plus 75

               227.5

Answer:

Explained below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The system of two equations is:

[tex]5x+2y=7...(i)\\\\3x-y=2...(ii)[/tex]

Step A:

To solve the system using elimination, first multiply the bottom equation by 2. Write the new system of equations.

[tex]5x+2y=7\\\\6x-2y=4[/tex]

Step B:

The multiplication is performed to simplify the elimination process.

Step C:

The variable that will be eliminated when the equations are combined after the multiplication is y.

Step D:

Next, add the equations together. Your answer should be a single equation with one variable.

[tex]5x+2y=7\\ +\\6x-2y=4\\\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\\\\11x=11[/tex]

Step E:

We can add the equation because both the equation are in the same format, i.e. ax + by = c.

Step F:

Solve the equation for x.

11x = 11

x = 1

Step G:

Substitute x back into one of the equations to solve for y.

[tex]5x+2y=7\\\\(5\times 1)+2y=7\\\\5+2y=7\\\\2y=7-5\\\\2y=2\\\\y=1[/tex]

Step H:

The solution to the system of equations is: (x, y) = (1, 1).

Answer:

23\43

Step-by-step explanation:

first you copy dot flip you subtract the numeerater and the denominator witch give you the anserw 23\43

b

r

a

in

l

y

p

l

z

i

n

e

e

d

i

t