PLEASE HELP I DONT UNDERSTAND I WILL GIVE EXTRA POINTS IF ITS RIGHT!!!!!!!!!!!!

The number of students that are in college is 7200 if ​Five-sixths of the students at a nearby college live in dormitories. If 6000 students at the college live in​ dormitories.

Fraction number consists of two parts, one is the top of the fraction number which is called the numerator and the second is the bottom of the fraction number which is called the denominator.

It is given that:

​Five-sixths of the students at a nearby college live in dormitories. If 6000 students at the college live in​ dormitories

Let x be the number of students that are in college.

Then from the question:

The value of x can be found as follows:

x = (6000/5)×6

x = (1200)×6

x = 7200

Thus, the number of students that are in college is 7200 if ​Five-sixths of the students at a nearby college live in dormitories. If 6000 students at the college live in​ dormitories.

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Answer:

Large number=12

Smaller number=6

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the two numbers be x and y

x+y=18

x-y=6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 6

arc RT = 49°

"It is a line that intersects the circle exactly at one point."

"It is a line that intersects circle at two points."

For given example,

arc QT = (27x + 3)°

arc RT = (9x – 5)°  

∠RST = (10x – 2)°

From figure we can observe that line ST is tangent and line SQ is secant.

∠RST is the angle subtended by tangent ST and secant SQ

We know, the angle subtended by the tangent and the secant is half the difference of the measures of the intercepted arcs.

⇒ ∠RST = (QT - RT)/2

⇒ 10x - 2 = [(27x + 3) - (9x - 5)] /2

⇒ 2(10x - 2) = 27x + 3 - 9x + 5

⇒ 20x - 4 = 18x + 8

⇒ 20x - 18x = 8 + 4

⇒ x = 6

So, arc RT would be,

⇒ 9x - 5 = 9(6) - 5

⇒ 9x - 5 = 49°

Therefore, arc RT = 49°

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The division of 32x^3 - 48x^2 - 40x by 8x results in the quotient 4x^2 - 6x - 5 on solving the given equation.

To divide 32x^3 - 48x^2 - 40x by 8x, we divide each term of the dividend by the divisor, 8x.

Dividing 32x^3 by 8x gives us 4x^2, as x^3/x = x^2 and 32/8 = 4.

Dividing -48x^2 by 8x gives us -6x, as -48x^2/8x = -6x.

Dividing -40x by 8x gives us -5, as -40x/8x = -5.

Combining these results, the quotient is 4x^2 - 6x - 5.

The quotient represents the result of dividing the dividend by the divisor, resulting in a polynomial expression without any remainder. Therefore, when dividing 32x^3 - 48x^2 - 40x by 8x, the quotient is 4x^2 - 6x - 5.

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It is advised that lower pressure test should be administered.

Probability of survival of pressure vessel the pressure vessel is tested under the lower pressure test at 58 bar, the probability of survival is given by the sum of the probability of survival if the vessel is one of the 60% that will survive 70 bar and the probability of survival if the vessel is one of the 40% that will fail at 70 bar but will survive 58 bar or less. If P1 represents the probability of survival of the vessel if it is one of the 60% that will survive 70 bar, and P2 represents the probability of survival if it is one of the 40% that will fail at 70 bar but will survive 58 bar or less, then the probability of survival of the vessel, if it is tested under the lower pressure test at 58 bar, is given by:

P = 0.60 x 1 + 0.40 x (1 - 0.60) = 0.76

If the pressure vessel is tested under the higher pressure test at 65 bar, the probability of survival is given by the sum of the probability of survival if the vessel is one of the 60% that will survive 70 bar, and the probability of survival if the vessel is one of the 40% that will fail at 70 bar but will survive 65 bar or less. If P3 represents the probability of survival of the vessel if it is one of the 40% that will fail at 70 bar but will survive 65 bar or less, then the probability of survival of the vessel, if it is tested under the higher pressure test at 65 bar, is given by:

P = 0.60 x 1 + 0.40 x (1 - 0.80 x P3)

The condition that the probability of survival of the vessel, if it is tested under the higher pressure test at 65 bar, is at least 0.95 is therefore:

0.60 + 0.40 x (1 - 0.80 x P3) ≥ 0.95

This simplifies to: P3 ≤ 0.625

Using the above values for P1, P2, and P3, it is clear that the probability of the vessel surviving if tested at the lower pressure of 58 bar is greater than 0.95. Therefore, the lower pressure test should be carried out.

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Answer:

Polymer to be mixed with water to produce 350 gallons of a 0.5% solution is  1.75 gallons.

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution weight-age   100% = 350 gallons

Polymer weight-age = 0.5 %  = ?

Water weight-age = 99.5 % = ?

100 =99.5 w + 0.5 p

350 = ?      + ?

Using ratios

100          350

0.5           p

Applying the cross product rule

p = 350 *0.5/100= 1.75 gallons

Polymer to be mixed with water to produce 350 gallons of a 0.5% solution is  1.75 gallons

Using ratios

100          350

99.5           w

Applying the cross product rule

w = 350*99.5 /100= 348.25 gallons

Water to be mixed with water to produce 350 gallons of a 0.5% solution is  348.25 gallons

Based on the illustration above, the value of margin of error M.E is 6.961

Margin of error (M.E) is calculated as the product of critical value (CV) and standard error (SE) of sample mean.

The formula for standard error of sample mean is:

SE = σ/√n

where σ is the population standard deviation and n is the sample size. The formula for margin of error is:

M.E. = CV x SE

where CV is the critical value.

The critical value for a 95% confidence level with 22 degrees of freedom (sample size 23 - 1) is 2.074 (rounded to 3 decimal places).

The sample mean is 37.6 and the population standard deviation is 16.1.

Sample size, n = 23.

Using the formula,

SE = σ/√n

SE = 16.1/√23

SE = 3.365 (rounded to 3 decimal places)

Now, using the calculated value of SE and CV,

ME = CV x SE

ME = 2.074 × 3.365

ME = 6.961 (rounded to 1 decimal place)

Therefore, the margin of error (M.E.) is 6.961 (rounded to 1 decimal place).

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The AIC, or the Akaike Information Criterion, strikes a balance between model complexity and goodness of fit.

In statistical modeling, it is crucial to find a balance between the complexity of a model and its ability to accurately capture the underlying patterns in the data. On one hand, a complex model with numerous parameters may be able to fit the data very closely, resulting in a low error or residual.

However, such a model runs the risk of overfitting, meaning it may become too specific to the training data and perform poorly when applied to new, unseen data.

On the other hand, a simpler model with fewer parameters may not capture all the nuances of the data and may have a higher error or residual. This is known as underfitting, as the model fails to capture the underlying complexity of the data.

The AIC addresses this trade-off by considering both the goodness of fit and the complexity of the model. It penalizes models with a higher number of parameters, encouraging a balance between model complexity and goodness of fit.

The AIC takes into account the residual sum of squares (RSS) or the likelihood of the model, and adjusts it based on the number of parameters used. The goal is to select the model with the lowest AIC value, indicating a good compromise between complexity and fit.

By striking this balance, the AIC provides a reliable criterion for model selection, allowing researchers and statisticians to choose the most appropriate model for their data while avoiding both overfitting and underfitting.

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Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

The GCF of 42 and 12 is 6

Answer:

I don't know how to do it the subject

Answer:

1695579

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution: Given, Abigail (A) and Balan (B) want to share a pizza of size

1. Both agents have the same utility function u(x) = 2 for pizza, Abigail discounts with 8A = 1/2. Balan discounts with 88 1/2 Abigail moves first.

We have to calculate the Rubinstein solution of the bargaining problem. Bargaining Solution Using Rubinstein's alternating offers model, the bargaining solution is:

Take x as the size of the pizza that Abigail gets.

Hence, Balan gets 1 - x.

The possible utility that they get are:

Abigail: 2x(1/2) + 0(1/2) = x

Balan: 2(1 - x)(88 1/2) + 0(11 1/2) = 177 - 177x The minimum utility that they both need to be satisfied is:

minimum value = 2 x 177/2 = 177

The bargaining range is [0,1], thus there are infinite pairs that satisfy the minimum utility requirement. However, Rubinstein assumes that the final solution should be somewhere between both parties' ideal points, so we can restrict the bargaining range to [1/2, 1]. Abigail gets x and Balan gets 1 - x. Now, we have to see what happens if Balan rejects this offer.

When Balan rejects, the bargaining range is [0, x) for Abigail and (x, 1] for Balan. In this range,

Abigail's ideal point is 2x(1/2) + 0(1/2) = x and

Balan's ideal point is 2(1 - x)(88 1/2) + 0(11 1/2) = 177 - 177x.

The bargaining range is again restricted to [1/2, 1]. When Balan rejects, the bargaining range is [0, x) for Abigail and (x, 1] for Balan. In this range, Abigail's ideal point is 2x(1/2) + 0(1/2) = x and Balan's ideal point is 2(1 - x)(88 1/2) + 0(11 1/2) = 177 - 177x.The bargaining range is again restricted to [1/2, x) and (x, 1].

Now, if Abigail rejects, then the bargaining range is (0, x) for Abigail and [x, 1] for Balan. In this range, Abigail's ideal point is 2x(88 1/2) + 0(11 1/2) = 177x and Balan's ideal point is 2(1 - x)(1/2) + 0(1/2) = 1 - x. The bargaining range is again restricted to (1/2, x) and (x, 1/2 + 1/176). In the next step, if Balan rejects, then the bargaining range is [0, x) for Abigail and (x, 1] for Balan. In this range, Abigail's ideal point is 2x(1/2) + 0(1/2) = x and Balan's ideal point is 2(1 - x)(1/2) + 0(1/2) = 1 - x. The bargaining range is again restricted to [1/2, x) and (x, 1/2 + 1/176).

Repeating the steps,

the solution is: x = 2/3, 177 - 177x = 59.

After calculating the Rubinstein solution of the bargaining problem, we can see that Abigail gets 2/3 of the pizza and Balan gets 1/3 of the pizza. There are two reasons why Abigail gets a larger share of the pizza: Abigail moves first, so she has an advantage because she can propose a deal that is more favorable to her. This is why the bargaining range is initially restricted to [1/2, 1]. Abigail has a lower discount rate than Balan, so she is willing to wait longer for a deal. This means that Abigail can drive a harder bargain because she has a higher reservation utility.

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Answer:

a = 12.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum of n terms = n/2[2a + d(n-1)]

For 25 terms

S25 = 12.5(2a + 24d)

S25 = 25a + 300d

For 4 terms

S4 = 2(2a + 3d)

So:

S25 = 15*2(2a + 3d)

S25 = 60a + 90d

25a + 300d = 60a + 90d

35a =  210d

a = 6d

Take  a to be 12 and d to be 2:

25th term = 12.5(2*12 + 24 * 2) = 900

4th term = 2(24 + 6) = 60

900 = 15 * 60 so a = 12.

Answer:

400

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of sides and add then up

Answer:

$18.5

Step-by-step explanation:

You just add up all the costs and divide them by two and then you would get your answer

Answer:

324

...................

Answer:

angle 3=angle (vertical opposite angle)

angle 3 +angle 2=180°(by linear pair)

136°+angle 2=180°

angle 2=180°-136°

angle 2=44°

angle 2=angle 4(by vertical opposite angle)

Answer:

Uh i dont really get it

Step-by-step explanation:

best of luck though

Given the random variable X with specific expected values and the equation Y = a + bx + cX, we are asked to find the correlation coefficient p(X,Y).

The correlation coefficient between two random variables X and Y is given by the formula:

p(X,Y) = Cov(X,Y) / sqrt(Var(X) * Var(Y))

To calculate the correlation coefficient, we need to find the covariance (Cov(X,Y)) and the variances (Var(X) and Var(Y)).

Given the expected values, we can calculate the required values as follows:

Cov(X,Y) = E[XY] - E[X]E[Y]

Var(X) = E[[tex]X^2[/tex]] - [tex](E[X])^2[/tex]

Var(Y) = E[tex][(Y - E[Y])^2][/tex]

Using the provided expected values, we can substitute them into the formulas:

Cov(X,Y) = E[XY] - E[X]E[Y] = E[(a + bx + cX)X] - (0)(E[a + bx + cX]) = E[aX + b[tex]X^2[/tex] + c[tex]X^2[/tex]] = a(E[X]) + b(E[[tex]X^2[/tex]]) + c(E[[tex]X^3[/tex]])

Var(X) = E[[tex]X^2[/tex]] - [tex](E[X])^2[/tex] = 1 - [tex](0)^2[/tex] = 1

Var(Y) = E[(Y - [tex]E[Y])^2[/tex]] = E[(a + bx + cX - [tex](E[a + bx + cX]))^2[/tex]] = E[[tex](a + bx + cX)^2[/tex]]

Using the provided values for E[[tex]X^3[/tex]] and E[[tex]X^4[/tex]], we can simplify the expressions further and calculate the values.

Once we have the values of Cov(X,Y), Var(X), and Var(Y), we can substitute them into the correlation coefficient formula to find p(X,Y).

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Given [tex]v=4i-j[/tex], and [tex]w=3i+2j\\[/tex], the angle between v and w is 47.7°.

To find the angle between vectors v and w, we can use the dot product formula:

v · w = |v| |w| cos(θ)

where v · w represents the dot product of v and w, |v| and |w| represent the magnitudes of vectors v and w, and θ represents the angle between the vectors.

First, let's calculate the magnitudes of vectors v and w:

|v| = √(4² + (-1)²) = √(16 + 1) = √17

|w| = √(3² + 2²) = √(9 + 4) = √13

Next, let's calculate the dot product of v and w:

v · w = (4)(3) + (-1)(2) = 12 - 2 = 10

Now, we can substitute the values into the dot product formula to find the angle θ:

10 = (√17)(√13) cos(θ)

cos(θ) = 10 / (√17)(√13)

cos(θ) = 10 / (√(17 * 13))

cos(θ) = 10 / (√221)

θ = cos⁻¹ (0.6717)

θ = 47.7°.

Therefore, the angle between vectors v and w is approximately 47.7° .

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Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

The null hypothesis (H0) assumes that the proportion of adults annoyed by television violence is equal to or greater than 0.5, while the alternative hypothesis (Ha) assumes that the proportion is less than 0.5.

In this case, the sample proportion is calculated as the number of adults indicating annoyance divided by the total sample size: 1,152/2,400 = 0.48.

Next, we can calculate the test statistic, which follows a standard normal distribution under the null hypothesis. The test statistic formula is z = (p - P) / sqrt(P(1-P)/n), where p is the sample proportion, P is the hypothesized proportion under the null hypothesis (0.5 in this case), and n is the sample size.

Using the given values, we can calculate the test statistic:

z = (0.48 - 0.5) / sqrt(0.5(1-0.5)/2400) ≈ -1.67.

Finally, we compare the test statistic to the critical value. At a significance level of 0.10, the critical value for a one-tailed test is approximately -1.28. Since the test statistic (-1.67) is smaller than the critical value, we reject the null hypothesis. This suggests that there is evidence to support the claim that less than half of all adults are annoyed by violence on television.

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Given the heights of the female adults in a country is represented by a random variable that follows the normal distribution N(170,30)1. To enter the tallest 20% of the female adults, a man must be at least 184.87 cm tall.

Solution:It is given that, the heights of the female adults in a country can be represented by a random variable that follows the normal distribution N(170,30)Let X be the height of female adults, then X ~ N(170, 30)

Let P be the probability of the tallest 20% female adults.To find the value of x we need to use the standard normal distribution formula which is given byz = (x - μ) / σWhere,z = standard score or z-scorex = the raw scoreμ = the meanσ = the standard deviation

Now, the probability of the tallest 20% female adults is P = 0.20 or 20%We know that the total area under the normal curve is 1 which means P(X < μ) = 0.5So, P( X > μ) = 1 - P(X < μ) = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5Therefore, 0.5 = P(Z < z) at z = 0.84 from standard normal distribution table,0.84 = (x - μ) / σOn substituting the values,0.84 = (x - 170) / 30x - 170 = 0.84 x 30x - 170 = 25.2x = 195.2So, to enter the tallest 20% of the female adults, a man must be at least 184.87 cm tall.2.

To enter the tallest 1% of the female adults, a man must be at least 201.17 cm tall.

Solution: It is given that, the heights of the female adults in a country can be represented by a random variable that follows the normal distribution N(170,30)Let X be the height of female adults, then X ~ N(170, 30)

Let P be the probability of the tallest 1% female adults.

Now, the probability of the tallest 1% female adults is P = 0.01 or 1%We know that the total area under the normal curve is 1 which means P(X < μ) = 0.5So, P( X > μ) = 1 - P(X < μ) = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5Therefore, 0.5 = P(Z < z) at z = 2.33 from standard normal distribution table,2.33 = (x - μ) / σOn substituting the values,2.33 = (x - 170) / 30x - 170 = 2.33 x 30x - 170 = 69.9x = 239.9 cm

So, to enter the tallest 1% of the female adults, a man must be at least 201.17 cm tall.

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To enter the tallest 1% of the female adults, a man must be at least 104.1 cm tall.

The heights of female adults in a country can be represented by a random variable that follows the normal distribution N(170,30).

The questions and their solutions are:

1. To enter the tallest 20% of female adults, a man must be at least [ ] cm tall.

To solve this, we can use the standard normal distribution table.

Let Z be the standard normal distribution.

To find the corresponding Z-score to the 20th percentile, we use the standard normal distribution table.

P(Z < z) = 0.20, where P(Z < z) is the area under the standard normal distribution curve to the left of z.

z = -0.84 (rounded to 2 decimal places).

Using the formula z = (X - µ) / σ, we can solve for X, the height of the woman:

[tex]z = (X - µ) / σX = σz + µX = 30(-0.84) + 170X = 147.8[/tex] (rounded to the nearest tenth of a cm)

Therefore, to enter the tallest 20% of the female adults, a man must be at least 147.8 cm tall.

2. To enter the tallest 1% of female adults, a man must be at least [ ] cm tall.

P(Z < z) = 0.01

z = -2.33 (rounded to 2 decimal places).

Using the formula z = (X - µ) / σ, we can solve for X, the height of the woman:

[tex]z = (X - µ) / σX = σz + µX = 30(-2.33) + 170X = 104.1[/tex] (rounded to the nearest tenth of a cm)

Therefore, to enter the tallest 1% of the female adults, a man must be at least 104.1 cm tall.

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Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

No. of people going to beach = 46 .

Using Unitary Method ,

9 people can go in one van .

1 person can go in 1/9

46 people can go in 1/9 * 46 = 5.1

Since vans can't be in fraction , 1 extra van for 1 person is need that is for 46th person .

So total number of vans = 5 + 1 = 6

Answer:  its 4x(3+2)-6÷ 1=14

Step-by-step explanation: in the picture

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

The average rate of change in the closed interval [ a, b ] is

[tex]\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}[/tex]

Here [ a , b ] = [ 15, 35 ]

and f(b) = f(35) = 400 ← from graph

f(a) = f(15) = 200 ← from graph

Then average rate of change is

[tex]\frac{400-200}{35-15}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{200}{20}[/tex] = 10 m/ s → B

Answer: 7,833

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Where is the rest of the question?

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that we randomly select 100 drivers ages 16 to 19 from example 4. We are to determine the probability that the mean distance traveled each day is between 19.4 and 22.5 miles. The probability that the mean distance traveled each day is between 19.4 and 22.5 miles is approximately 1.00.

Probability distribution is a function which represents the probabilities of all possible values of a random variable.

When the probability distribution of a random variable is unknown, we can use the Central Limit Theorem (CLT) to estimate the mean of the population.

Let X be the mean distance traveled each day by the 100 drivers ages 16 to 19.

Then, the distribution of X is approximately normal with the mean μ = 20.4 miles and the standard deviation σ = 3.8 miles.

Therefore, we can calculate the z-score as follows; z = (X - μ) / (σ / √n), where X = 19.4 and n = 100.

z₁ = (19.4 - 20.4) / (3.8 / √100)

z₁ = -2.63 and

z₂ = (22.5 - 20.4) / (3.8 / √100)

z₂ = 5.53

Hence, the probability that the mean distance traveled each day is between 19.4 and 22.5 miles is;

P(19.4 < X < 22.5) = P(z₁ < z < z₂).

Using the z-table, the probability is found to be; P(-2.63 < z < 5.53) ≈ 1.00.

Therefore, the probability that the mean distance traveled each day is between 19.4 and 22.5 miles is approximately 1.00.

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