Drag each label into the appropriate position in order to identify whether the structure is associated with the buccal cavity or the stomach.
The movement of food through the esophagus is called peristalsis.
What is the buccal cavity?The mouth is what we generally call the buccal cavity. It is an opening that contains the teeth and the tongue. The tongue plays the important role of serving as the organ of taste while the teeth serves to marsh food. It is the white strong structure that occurs in the mouth that enables is to masticate our food. Also in the mouth we have the salivary gland which plays the role of secreting the saliva and we know that the saliva contains from enzymes that makes it possible for the digestion of food to commence at the moth. It the follows that the buccal cavity is made up of the teeth, tongue and salivary glands.Food moves into the stomach via the esophagus. Thus movement is slow and is aided by the muscles that line the gastro intestinal tract. As such, movement of food through the esophagus is called peristalsis.Esophagus the esophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx (throat) to the stomach. The esophagus contracts as it moves food into the stomach.To learn more about buccal cavity refer to:
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These are used for balance and pushing in skiing.
A. poles
B. ski boot
C. skis
D. bindings
Answer:
Ski poles
Explanation:
Hope this helps
an autoimmune disease where the body's immune cells attack the synovial membrane resulting articular cartilage abrasion complicating an active lifestyle in some older adults is known as .
an autoimmune disease where the body's immune cells attack the synovial membrane resulting articular cartilage abrasion complicating an active lifestyle in some older adults is known as rheumatoid arthritis.
A chronic inflammatory condition that can harm more than just your joints, rheumatoid arthritis. Many different body systems, including the skin, eyes, lungs, heart, and blood vessels, might suffer harm in certain individuals with the illness.Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that develops when the body's own tissues come under attack by the immune system. Rheumatoid arthritis, in contrast to osteoarthritis, affects the lining of your joints, resulting in a painful swelling that may eventually lead to bone degradation and joint deformity. Other bodily components may also suffer damage as a result of the inflammation brought on by rheumatoid arthritis.
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This is a 33-year-old female, primigravida, who came in experiencing early labor. Patient is at 40 weeks gestation. The patient had been scheduled for a cesarean section due to breech presentation. This patient has had no significant problems during first, second, or third trimester. The patient’s past medical history is noncontributory. The patient’s LMP was 06/22/2021, placing her EDC at 04/05/2022. Ultrasounds were performed throughout the pregnancy and revealed adequate growth during the pregnancy and EDC remained technically the same. The patient’s initial blood work showed blood type to be A positive, VDRL was nonreactive, rubella titer indicated immunity, hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) was negative, HIV screen was negative, GC and Chlamydia cultures were negative. Pap smear was normal. Her 1-hour glucose tolerance test was within normal parameters. The patient’s blood count also remained well within normal parameters. Her quad screen for maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) was normal. Strep culture was likewise negative at 34–35 weeks. The patient, upon admission, was having contractions approximately every 4–5 minutes, moderate in intensity. The patient had no dilation; presenting part was still in a breech presentation, per bedside ultrasound; and the patient was therefore made ready for primary cesarean section. The patient was taken to surgery, where primary classical cesarean section was performed with delivery of a breech infant from left sacral anterior positioning, male weighing 6 pounds 10 ounces with Apgars 8 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes. Placenta delivered intact. Membranes were removed. The patient tolerated the procedure quite well. Estimated blood loss was less than 600 mL. The patient has had an uneventful postoperative period. She is ambulating well and moving well at this time. The patient is passing gas, moving her bowels, and urinating well; moderate lochia is present; uterus is firm. The patient is discharged from the hospital, being given careful instructions to avoid douchi
By 36 weeks of pregnancy, most babies will turn from breech, which is normal in the early stages of pregnancy. Vertex presentation, or standing up straight, is the safest position for giving birth.
What is the patient's report?
Identity information- 33 years old, first pregnancy, 40 weeks' gestation, C-section, LMP-06/22/2017
EDC- 04/05/2018
History - There is no pertinent past medical ailment history
Negative during the prenatal period
LAB EXAMINATIONS - Blood counts: Standard
Rh factor and blood type - A'+'
Negative for HBsAg
HIV testing was negative.
History of admission contracts 5 to 4 minutes
Giving part in accordance with USG - Breech
The recovery phase was unremarkable.
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T/F exercise is a type of physical activity that is not planned or structured, and uses repetitive bodily movements with the intent to improve a component of health.
false: exercise is a type of physical activity that is not planned or structured, and uses repetitive bodily movements with the intent to improve a component of health.
Exercise is a category of physical activity that involves intentional, repetitive movement of the body in order to maintain or enhance one or more aspects of physical fitness. Exercise is the training of the body to enhance fitness and function. Exercise is a systematic, repeating movement pattern done with the goal of increasing fitness. Additionally, it considerably enhances health as a benefit. The capacity of the heart to pump blood, the size of the muscles, and flexibility are all improved by fitness. exercise, execution of power, physical or spiritual exercise, from Latin exercitium "training, physical exercise" (of soldiers, horsemen, etc.); "play," also used in Medieval Latin of arts, from exercitare, frequentative of exercere "keep busy, keep at work, oversee, engage busily; train, exercise; practice, follow; carry.
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Study examples of foods that fall into each of the "MyPlate" Groups
Answer:
Five Food Groups/MyPlate
Different food groups have different nutrients and health benefits. If you regularly skip a group, over time you won't get the best nutrition.
1. Vegetables
The vegetable portion of MyPlate is shown in green. It's the largest sections on the plate. That's because vegetables provide many of the vitamins and minerals we need for good health. Veggies are naturally low in calories, and the fiber in them helps us feel full.
Choosing variety is important when it comes to vegetables: Dark green vegetables (like broccoli, spinach, and kale) provide different nutrients from orange and red vegetables (like squash, carrots, and sweet potatoes). The "eat your colors" message that you might have learned in grade school is a good one to follow throughout your life.
2. Fruits
Like veggies, fruits have vitamins, minerals, and fiber. The red section of MyPlate is slightly smaller than the green, but together fruits and veggies should fill half your plate. Whole fruit is the best choice: Fruit juices have more sugar and calories per serving than whole fruit, and you're not getting the fiber.
As with veggies, it's good to mix up your fruit choices: a colorful fruit cup is more than just pretty — it's a nutrition powerhouse.
3. Grains
The orange section of MyPlate is about one quarter of the plate. Whole grains (like whole-wheat flour) are more nutritious and have lots of dietary fiber that can help you feel fuller longer. Refined grains (white flour) are more processed, removing vitamins, minerals, and fiber. Most refined grains are enriched, which means that some of the nutrients, but not fiber, are added back after processing.
At least half of the grains you eat should be whole grains like whole-wheat bread, brown rice, or oatmeal.
4. Protein
High-protein foods help the body build and maintain muscles, skin, blood, and other tissues. They also have important vitamins and minerals, like iron.
The purple section of MyPlate is about a quarter of the plate. Foods high in protein include beef, poultry, seafood, dry beans and peas, eggs, nuts, and seeds. Tofu and veggie burgers or vegetarian meat substitutes are also good sources of protein. When eating meats, choose lean or low-fat options.
5. Dairy
The blue circle on the MyPlate graphic represents dairy products that are rich in calcium, like milk, yogurt, and cheese. Calcium-fortified soy milk and soy yogurt are also included in the dairy group. Calcium builds strong bones and teeth. Foods from the dairy group also have protein and vitamin D. Choose fat-free or low-fat dairy products most of the time.
The blue circle shows dairy as a "side" to your meal, like a glass of milk. But dairy can be part of your meal, like a cheese quesadilla, or served as a snack or dessert. Yogurt with fresh fruit or a fruit smoothie made with low-fat milk make great desserts.
Which responses would you use for a
computer or electronic medical record outage?
(select all that apply)
1)Verify computers, printers, and
WOWs are plugged into red
outlets.
2)Refer to downtime computer
and printer on unit.
3)Verify critical patients care
equipment is functioning prop-
erly.
4)Reset equipment, if needed, by
turning on and off.
5)Use red emergency phones.
6)Locate downtime forms and use
if directed.
Answer:
providers should expect a phone call when their system goes down for more than an hour
I hope this helps :)
Explanation:
Mrs. Drake recently fractured her left hip after falling out of bed. Her recent hip replacement surgery was successful. She was admitted to a sub-acute unit of a SNF for rehabilitation, but is responding poorly to attempts for treatment. She continually cries and the PT reports that Mrs. Drake has been expressing a fear of standing and is resistant to ambulate. According to the COTA, she is also having difficulty getting to the bathroom, showering and going to the dining room for meals. She rejects trying antidepressants and is developing poor endurance and muscle weakness
Mrs. Drake's strength lies in enjoying a comparatively good health with no presence of chronic diseases. Mrs. Drake's problems lie in having a medical condition of mild depression and a slight hearing loss. She also faces movement issues along with a fear of standing.
What is SNF?An inpatient facility type known as a skilled nursing facility (SNF) offers senior patients short- or long-term rehabilitation treatments. Following a necessary hospital stay for illness, accident, or surgery, these facilities offer patients who need transitional care round-the-clock medical treatment. Seniors typically stay at an SNF for up to 100 days, where they are attended to by trained medical personnel.
What is a COTA?A COTA, or Qualified Occupational Therapy Assistant, does all the tasks of an OTA but has gone above and beyond to get certified in their area of expertise. They signed up with the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT) and passed the required certification test.
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Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is appropriate for all of the following conditions except _____
Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is appropriate for all of the following conditions except cirrhosis of the liver.
Cirrhosis is scarring (fibrosis) of the liver caused by long-term liver damage. The scar tissue prevents the liver working properly. Cirrhosis is sometimes called end-stage liver disease because it happens after other stages of damage from conditions that affect the liver, such as hepatitis.
Patients with compensated cirrhosis have a median survival that may extend beyond 12 years. Patients with decompensated cirrhosis have a worse prognosis than do those with compensated cirrhosis; the average survival without transplantation is approximately two years .
The Four Stages of Liver Disease
Causes of Liver Disease. Liver disease refers to any condition that negatively impacts your liver.
Stages of Liver Disease.
Stage 1: Inflammation.
Stage 2: Fibrosis.
Stage 3: Cirrhosis.
Stage 4: Liver Failure.
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When listening to a skilled MI clinician, you will hear which ratio?
A proficient MI therapist will speak in a ratio of three or more reflections to one query.
What is MI ?
The goal of motivational interviewing (MI), a counselling technique, is to support people's efforts to stop using alcohol and/or other drugs by assisting them in resolving their ambivalence. A brief intervention based on client-centered concepts is frequently used to deliver motivational interviewing (MI).
The righting reflex is a term used to describe the propensity of medical experts to direct patients toward the best course for good health. In fact, this can frequently have a counterintuitive result that unintentionally strengthens the case for maintaining the status quo. The five MI principles are:
Show empathy towards patient.Create Disparity.Abstain from argument.Roll with the opposition.bolster self-efficacyTo learn more about patient click here:
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many people like to hold some of their assets as ______ because it is the most liquid of all assets and there is no risk of capital loss
many people like to hold some of their assets as money or cash or currency, because it is the most liquid of all assets and there is no risk of capital loss.
A resource having economic worth that a person, business, or nation possesses or controls with the hope that it would someday be useful is referred to as an asset.
The balance sheet of a business lists assets. They are divided into current, fixed, financial, and intangible categories. They are acquired or produced to raise a company's value or enhance its operations.
Whether it's a piece of manufacturing equipment or a patent, an asset can be thought of as something that will, in the future, increase sales, lower costs, or generate cash flow.
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7. What is the focus of social constructivist theory?
a. Influence of environment and self-reflective behaviours.
b. Key role of the individual.
c. Influence of environment on individual and behaviour.
d. Way in which social relationships are constructed.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
7. What is the focus of social constructivist theory?
a. Influence of environment and self-reflective behaviours.
b. Key role of the individual.
c. Influence of environment on individual and behaviour.
d. Way in which social relationships are constructed.
which of the following is generally more important than the specific technique a therapist uses in determining the success of psychotherapy?
The quality of psychotherapy is typically determined by the relationship between both the therapist and client, not by the particular approach the therapist employs.
What exactly is therapy?The word "psychotherapy" (sometimes called "talk therapy") consists of a variety of therapeutic modalities that assist patients in identifying and changing problematic thoughts, feelings, and actions.
What type of psychotherapy is most frequently employed?Behavioral-cognitive therapy (CBT)
The most common type of therapy right now might be cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). As was previously noted, CBT looks into the relationship here between people ’s feelings, thoughts, and behaviors. It typically emphasizes identifying harmful beliefs and replacing them with beneficial ones.
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One reliable correlate of schizophrenia is the presence of enlarged ventricles, which indicates that schizophrenia is associated with ____.
The appearance of enlarged ventricles is a reliable indicator of schizophrenia and suggests that the disorder is linked to brain degeneration.
What is schizophrenia ?
Schizophrenia may include hallucinations, delusions, and severely irrational thinking and behaviour, which can make it difficult to go about daily activities and be incapacitating. Schizophrenia patients require ongoing care.
The appearance of enlarged ventricles in brain is a reliable indicator of schizophrenia and suggests that the disorder is linked to brain degeneration. Schizophrenia may include hallucinations, delusions, and severely irrational thinking and behaviour, which can make it difficult to go about daily activities and be incapacitating. Schizophrenia patients require ongoing care.
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Classification of Sensory Receptors
Membrane receptors and receptors for cyclic hydrophobic substances are two classes of receptors that can be discussed. It will be some time before we are aware of the families of single membrane-spanning receptors.
What Classification of Sensory Receptors?Rods and cones (for vision), Meissner's corpuscles (for touch), olfactory cells (for smell), hair cells (for hearing), and gustatory cells are a few examples of different receptor nerve cells (taste).
Therefore, Fourfold membrane-spanning receptors, sevenfold membrane-spanning receptors, and fourfold membrane-spanning receptors.
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if the x-axis is genome size (on an arbitrary scale), the line best represents the number of protein-coding genes, and the line best represents the percentage of the genome that codes for proteins.
If the x-axis is genome size (on an arbitrary scale), the orange square line best represents the number of protein-coding genes, the gray triangle line best represents the percentage of the genome that codes for proteins.
The human genome is a entire set of nucleic acid sequences for humans, encoded as DNA in the 23 chromosome pairs in mobileular nuclei and in a small DNA molecule determined inside character mitochondria. These are generally dealt with one by one because the nuclear genome and the mitochondrial genome.
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Will Ann be able to read an EOB to determine the patients financial responsibility
Yes, he able read an EOB to determine the patients financial responsibility. For greater accuracy and compliance in medical care, Ann must obtain accurate patient billing information.
Why is it crucial that Anne obtain accurate patient billing data?It is crucial that the patient provide the registration staff with complete and accurate patient billing information. The medical billing procedure will go more quickly if the accuracy of the data is confirmed, and any errors that might cause the insurance companies' payments to be delayed will be avoided.
Your insurance provider will send you a statement called an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) that lists the prices of the medical services you received. An EOB details the fees your healthcare provider is billing your insurance provider for and any additional costs you might incur. Not a bill, this.
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Society plays a role in eating disorders because rates ofeating disorders in non-Western cultures increase whenthinness is accepted as an ideal.
It is true that society plays a role in eating disorders, as the acceptance of slimness as an ideal increases the prevalence of eating disorders in non-Western cultures.
What factors contribute to the higher incidence of eating disorders in Westernized cultures?Eating disorders are most common in industrialized cultures where the emphasis is on being thin, especially when being thin is associated with success. Media such as television, magazines etc. have created an image of perfect, successful person though unrealistic.
What percentage of society has an eating disorder?Eating disorder influences at least 9% of population throughout the world. Nine percent of the US population, or 28.8 million Americans, will experience an eating disorder at some point in their lives. It is less than 6% of people with eating disorders who are medically diagnosed as "underweight".
Which countries have the highest rates of eating disorders?Japan has the highest prevalence, followed by Hong Kong, Singapore, Taiwan and South Korea.
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To successfully lose fm and minimize ffm loss, a combination of diet and exercise should be used to achieve a caloric deficit of _____.
Exercise and diet should be utilized together to reach a 500 calorie deficit in order to efficiently lose FM and decrease FFM loss.
Describe a diet.A balanced diet is one that offers the proper amounts of each nutrient our bodies require, as well as roughage and water. A balanced diet should include a variety of nutrients, including carbs, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, roughage, and water. Diet that is balanced.
What role does diet play?Both proper nutrition and health depends on a healthy diet. Numerous degenerative noncommunicable diseases, such as cancer, diabetes, and heart disease are safeguarded from you. For optimal health, one must consume a healthy diet with minimal salts, sugars, vegetable oils, and trans fats from commercial food production.
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Help please!!
Read the passage. What kind of health care professional is Hansika? What kind of skill is Hansika showing?
Hansika works at a big hospital. She uses radio waves and magnets, to create images of internal organs. Hansika is in charge of explaining the
procedure to the patient. She tells them what to expect and asks them some questions about their medications, any health problems, food taken
in the last 24 hours and so on. These help her decide if the patient is fit to undergo the procedure.
Hansika is a (an)
. She is using
skills.
The statement indicates that Hansika is demonstrating students' understanding.
A hospital? What do u mean by that?A facility designed, staffed, equipped outfitted for diagnosis of the disease, the medical and surgical care of the ill and injured, and their lodging while undergoing these procedures. The contemporary hospital frequently acts as a research and educational hub.
Why is a hospital necessary?Hospitals. The performance of many other components of the healthcare system is enhanced and complimented by hospitals, which continuously make services for both acute and complicated disorders available. To properly address the demands of the population, they focus limited resources in well designed referral networks.
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The complete question is-
Hansika works at a hospital. She uses radio waves and magnets to create images of internal organs. Hansika explains the procedure to the patients. She tells them what to expect and asks them some questions about their medications, any health problems, and food taken in the last 24 hours. Which skill is Hansika demonstrating?
A. comprehension
B. writing
C. mechanical
D. reading
E. speaking
Ancillary department is the backbone of food amd beverage outlet . Justify the department
The department of a hospital that offers ancillary services and outpatient care is known as an ancillary department. The department checks the supply of kitchen utensils.
What is the Ancillary department?Numerous hospital-based and standalone skilled nursing facilities, hospice and palliative care services, home health, dialysis, and social work services.
Both those that are independent of the health system and those that are situated in the community—are examples of ancillary care delivery services. The wash-up area takes up the most space and is equipped with a variety of tools in the Kitchen Stewarding division.
Therefore, ancillary services and outpatient treatment are provided by a hospital department known as an ancillary department. The supply of kitchen utensils is inspected by the department.
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If i have blood from some on my finger and washed my hand with bleach and kaboom and soap and hot water with the germ in the blood dieA. TrueB. False
Hypochlorite (bleach) solution,( A.) true, Making a 1:10 bleach solution, which is the recommended concentration, requires mixing 1 part household bleach (5.25% hypochlorite) with 10 parts water (or 1/2 cup bleach to 4 12 cups water, or 125 ml bleach to 1 litre water).
Should you mix bleach with cold or warm water?Making a solution with hot water as opposed to cold or lukewarm water will render the bleach's active components inactive. So always make sure you dilute bleach in cold or tepid water for it to function.
What happens if bleach accidentally gets on your hands?Bleach can also cause chemical burns and serious skin rashes. A chemical burn happens when an external substance (chemical) directly damages or irritates tissue. When chemicals come into contact with the skin or eyes, burns can develop.
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The symptoms above that occurred on a relatively new creeping bentgrass fairway are most likely caused by (black and red cart)
The symptoms mentioned above, which appeared on a fairway with newly planted creeping bentgrass, were most likely brought by (black and red cart) take-all-patch
Take all patch is a growing sickness. On the greens, tees, and fairways of golf courses, bentgrass can be found. Take-all patch outbreaks can cause significant turf damage across wide regions, rendering the stand unplayable and unattractive. Take all patch is a growing sickness. On the greens, tees, and fairways of golf courses, bentgrass can be found. Take-all patch outbreaks can cause significant turf damage across wide regions, rendering the stand unplayable and unattractive. Take-all is best combated by DMI and QoI fungicides. The best take-all patch control happens when fungicides are treated prophylactically in the fall when soil temperatures are 7–16 °C at a depth of 5 cm.
Question
Symptoms : rings, crescents, or large spots, with centers often colonized by annual bluegrass, fine fescues, or weeds.
The symptoms above that occurred on a relatively new creeping bentgrass fairway are most likely caused by (black and red cart)
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the results of the critical incident stress debriefing (cisd) program were highlighted in the text to make what point?
When it comes to something as crucial as treating the effects of trauma, action is always preferable than inaction.
Trauma is what?Trauma is the term used to describe going through extremely stressful, frightful, or upsetting experiences. When we discuss psychological or emotional trauma, we may be referring to painful occurrences or incidents. how our experiences influence us.
What signs of trauma are there?Flashbacks, nightmares, excruciating anxiety, and trouble concentrating about the incident are just a few possible symptoms. The majority of people who experience traumatic events may initially struggle to adjust and cope, but with time and adequate self-care, they typically get better.
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Which of the following does NOT describe the crisis intervention strategy Guidance?
A.
The crisis worker safeguards the client from engaging in harmful, destructive, detrimental, and unsafe feelings, behaviors, and thoughts that may be psychologically or physically injurious or lethal to themselves or others.
B.
The crisis worker provides information, referral, and direction in regards to clients obtaining assistance from specific external resources and support systems.
The crisis worker provides information, referral, and direction in regards to clients obtaining assistance from specific external resources and support systems. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is Crisis intervention strategy guidance?
Crisis intervention is a short-term management technique which is designed to reduce the potential permanent damage to an individual who is affected by a crisis. A crisis is defined as an overwhelming event, which can include divorce, violence, passing of a loved one, or the discovery of a serious illness which can be fatal.
A helper's primary goal in the situation of crisis is to identify, assess, and intervene, to return the individual to his/her prior level of functioning as quickly as possible and also to lessen any negative impact on the future mental health of that person.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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For which set of patients does a pediatric dentist focus on providing oral healthcare?.
Breaches of unsecured PHI are put through a risk assessment test to determine if they must be reported, the assessment considers:
The assessment consider evaluation of four factors.
What is assesment?Educational assessment or educational evaluation is the systematic process of the documenting and using of empirical data on to the knowledge, skill, attitudes, and the aptitude and most important beliefs to refine programs and improve student learning.
A breach of PHI must be reported as the unless there is a “Low Probabilitythat to the PHI is or will be compromised.” A breach of the risk assessment requires evaluation of 4-Factors: (1) Nature/Extent of PHI; (2) the Unauthorized Person; (3) if the PHI was Acquired/Viewed; (4) Mitigation of success.
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Gina's therapist attributes her delinquent behavior to heredity and to the gross neglect she suffered as a baby at the hands of her alcoholic mother. Gina's therapist appears to be emphasizing the _____ aspect of her development.
stability
Gina's therapist appears to be emphasizing the stability aspect of her development.
What is heredity?Heredity is the culmination of all biological processes that allow certain traits to be passed on from one generation to the next. The idea of heredity includes two seemingly contradictory findings about organisms: the continuity of a species from generation to generation and the variety among individuals within a species.
What is an example of heredity?A human being may receive the "brown-eye trait" from one of their parents, which is an example of an inherited feature. Genes regulate inherited features, and the entire collection of genes found in a given organism's genome is referred to as its genotype.
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which of kevin's vitals from the doctor's office visit are consistent with your diagnosis in the previous question?
Some people are lucky enough never to fall sick, but most of us have to go to a doctor occasionally for examination and treatment.
Is a CPT code stating separate procedure is part of a bundled code?A CPT code stating "separate procedure" is part of a bundled code. The surgical package includes all of the following except: post-operative physical therapy. The physician completes an expanded focus office visit with an established patient.The three key components (history, examination, and medical decision making) are required for most E/M codes. The direction given for determining the level of this key component is pretty vague.Prepositions are words that indicate the relationship between a noun, pronouns, and other words in a sentence.Examples of prepositions are besides, above, at, under, etc...We are to fill in the gaps in the given passage and this is as shown below.Except in emergencies, it is customary to make an appointment before arriving at a doctor's office.When a patient visits a doctor for the first time, he or she is asked a number of questions by the doctor's assistant, so that the doctor can have a complete medical history. This aids the doctor in making an accurate diagnosis.The assistant asks the patient about the symptoms he or she has and about his previous illnesses or injuries she/he has suffered.To learn more about diagnosis refer to:
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List the sequence of events that refuses in atrial and ventricular contraction