If A = 30 degree and B = 60 degree , what is the value of sin(A+B). *
a) 0
b) 1/2
c) √3/2
d) 1

Answer:

, hope u understand and happy

Answer:

Oral traditions are things that have been passed down from generations, such as folktales, pieces of art, stories, and more

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Arc length = θ/360 × 2πr

A circle has an arc with a measure of 120 degrees and a lenght of 3π cm. What is the diameter of the circle

Hence,

3π = 120/360 × 2πr

Diameter = 2r

3π = 1/3 × 2πr

Cross Multiply

9π = 2πr

2r = 9π/π

Note that :

Diameter = 2r

Hence,

Diameter = 9 cm

Answer:

4^-5

Step-by-step explanation:

4^-3 = 1/4^3

1/4^3 · 1/^2 = 1/4^5 which is the same as 4^-5

Answer:

17/52 (Answer B)

Step-by-step explanation:

There are four queens and 13 hearts.  The probability of drawing a Queen is thus 4/52 (= 1/13); that of drawing a Heart is 13/52 (= 1/4).  

The probability of drawing either is 1/13 + 1/4, or 4/52 + 13/52, or 17/52 (Answer B)

Answer:

the surface area of the square is "378"

Step-by-step explanation:

2×(9×9 + 9×6 + 9×6) = 378

Answer: true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Multiplication of fractions do not require the same denominator, or the bottom number of the fraction, like addition and subtraction does. Instead, you would simply multiply the denominators and the top numerators.

=================================

Work Shown:

cos(angle) = adjacent/hypotenuse

cos(B) = BC/AB

cos(B) = 5/13

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y^13/12 or y^1 1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert the fractions to compatible bases. In this case, you can multiply the 3/4 by 3 making it 9/12, and multiply the 1/3 by 4 making it 4/12. If you add these now compatible fractions, you get 13/12. The base remains the same, I hope this helps!

Answer: It is a rectangle.

Step-by-step explanation: 2 rectangles of different sizes are being in top of each other.

Answer:

10 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Surface Area = π R² + π R L [ L is Slant Height ]

200 π = π (10)² + π (10) L

200 π = π (100) + π (10) L

200 π - 100 π = 10 π L

100 π = 10 π L

100 π / 10 π = L

10 = L

L = 10 inches

Hope this Helps......

[tex]\huge{ \mathrm{  \underline{ Answer} \:  \:  ✓ }}[/tex]

Given terms :

Now, we know

[tex] \large\boxed{\mathrm{surface \: \: area = \: \pi r(l + r) }}[/tex]

(note : " l " represents slant height.)

Therefore, Measure of slant height (l) :

[tex] \huge \boxed{10 \: \: in \: }[/tex]

_____________________________

[tex]\mathrm{ ☠ \: TeeNForeveR \:☠ }[/tex]

Answer:[tex]376.80\ mm^3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

The height of the cone is [tex]h=10\ mm[/tex]

The radius of the cone is [tex]r=6\ mm[/tex]

Volume of cone is given by

[tex]V=\dfrac{1}{3}\pi r^2h[/tex]

Insert the values

[tex]\Rightarrow V=\dfrac{1}{3}\times 3.14\times 6^2\times 10\\\\\Rightarrow V=376.80\ mm^3[/tex]

Thus, the volume of the cone is [tex]376.80\ mm^3[/tex]

Given:

The two statements.

To find:

The probability of an impossible event.

The probability of a certain event.

Solution:

Formula for probability is:

[tex]P=\dfrac{\text{Possible favorable outcomes}}{\text{Total number of outcomes}}[/tex]

For an impossible event, the possible favorable outcomes is 0. So,

[tex]P=\dfrac{0}{\text{Total number of outcomes}}[/tex]

[tex]P=0[/tex]

For a certain event (sure event), the possible favorable outcomes is equal to total number of outcomes. So,

[tex]P=\dfrac{\text{Total number of outcomes}}{\text{Total number of outcomes}}[/tex]

[tex]P=1[/tex]

Therefore, an event that is impossible has probability 0 and an event that is certain has probability 1.

Answer:

40320

Step-by-step explanation:

8! is equal to 1 * 2 * 3 * 4 * 5 * 6 * 7 * 8 , which equal 40320

Answer:

40320

Step-by-step explanation:

An exclamation point denotes a factorial, so multiply all the numbers less than or equal to  8  until you get to  1

[tex]8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1=40320[/tex]

Answer:

45cm2

Step-by-step explanation:

10x7(base x height)=70

70/2=45

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

"x" represents the hours.

so 8 is the fee for the hours, rather than insurance.

6 is the insurance fee.

if the cost per hours is doubled, it'll now be 16.

the answer is "6 + 16x" (D)

[tex] \sqrt{74} \: units.[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let (2,3) = (x1 , y1) and (7,10) = (x2 , y2)

By using Distance formula

[tex] \sqrt{ {(x2 - x1)}^{2} + {(y2 - y1)}^{2} } [/tex]

[tex] \sqrt{ {(7 - 2)}^{2} + {(10 - 3)}^{2} } [/tex]

[tex] \sqrt{ {5}^{2} + {7}^{2} } [/tex]

[tex] \sqrt{25 + 49} [/tex]

[tex] \sqrt{74} [/tex] units.

Answer:

6 3/8 pounds (also 6.375 pounds)

Step-by-step explanation:

2 2/3 + 1 5/6 + 1 7/8 = x

8/3 + 11/6 + 15/8 = x

(multiply each fraction by to create the denominator 24)

8/3 x 8/8 = 64/24

11/6 x 4/4 = 44/24

15/8 x 3/3 = 45/24

64/24 + 44/24 = 108/24

108/24 + 45/24 = 153/24

153/24 = 6.375 = 6 3/8

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

P=2l+2w

28=2l+2w

2l=2w-28

l = (2w-28)/2

l =2(w-14)/2

l = w-14

Answer:

Because the airline allows each suitcase to hold up to 50 pounds, and it doesn't force them to hold exactly 50 pounds

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

b/c she doesn't have to have exactly 50 pounds,  she can have any were from 0 to 50 pounds  in each suit case.   They are not going to charge her more, if she only brings 49 pounds :DDDD  It's the same charge up to and including 50 pounds.  If she brings 51 pounds then maybe she would get charged more :P    But not for 50 pounds or less .  :)  Make sense?

Answer: B: -4 by -4 by -4

Step-by-step explanation: When a number is to be used with a negative exponent, the number is to be multiplied by however many times the number says to multiply it, and whether the exponent is positive or negative determines the numbers being multiplied, whether they should be negative or positive. (Sorry, I'm not good at wording this, I'll provide an example below.);

4^-3 means that you multiply four three times, but the exponent is also negative, so it would make each of the base numbers negative.

-4 by -4 by -4

Answer:

It would be A. 4.47

Answer:

IM NOT SURE WHAT

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9a) 6 1/5

b) 6 4/7

c) 1 1/0

d) 4 1/8

e) 1 1/3

f) 3 1/6

10a) 15 years old

b) 14 1/6 years old

11) 8/3 = 2 2/3

7/5 = 1 2/5

2 2/3 + 1 2/5 = 4 1/15

12a) They ate 3 11/12 pizzas

b) They ate 1 1/3 more cheese pizzas than veg

Step-by-step explanation:

5b²+39b=8

<=> 5b²+39b-8=0

(5b-1)(b+8)=0

b = ¹/5 or b = -8

b=-8 and b=1/5.

Answer:

Solution given:

5b²+39b=8

5b²+39b-8=0

try to do middle term factorization.

it needs 40 while multiplication and 39 when subtraction.

it is 40-1 and 40*1

now

doing middle term factorization

5b²+(40-1)b-8=0

5b²+40-b-8=0

take common from each 2 term

5b(b+8)-1(b+8)=0

again take common and keep remaining in another brackets

(b+8)(5b-1)=0

either

b=-8

or

b=1/5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

no of days                                                   no of men

30                                                                         20

24                                                                             20

30/24=x/20

24 x=30*20

24x=600

x=600/24

x=25

therefore  5 more men are needed to complete the work in 24 days