I need you to find the value for X, show steps please!

-4x = 22

Answer:

x = 12 m

Step-by-step explanation:

Length = x m

Width = 3⅔ = 11/3

Area = 44 m²

Area of rectangle = length × width

Plug in the values into the equation

[tex] 44 = x \times \frac{11}{3} [/tex]

[tex] 44 = \frac{11x}{3} [/tex]

Multiply both sides by 3

[tex] 44 \times 3 = \frac{11x}{3} \times 3 [/tex]

[tex] 132 = 11x [/tex]

Divide both sides by 11

[tex] 12 = x [/tex]

x = 12

Answer:113

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option D.) y = 3/5 + 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we find the Slope using the formula: m = y2 - y1/x2 - x1

You may choose any two points but I will use these two for no reason at all.)

Points: (3,2) and (8,5)

m = y2 - y1/x2 - x1

m = 5 - 2/8 - 3

m = 3/5

Now that we have the slope, we can now find the Slope Intercept Form by using the Slope Form Formula. (need at least one point and slope.)

Formula: y - y1 = m(x - x1)

Point: (3,2) (you may choose any point but I will choose this for no reason at all xD)

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y - 2 = 3/5(x - 3)

y - 2 = 3/5x - 9/5

y - 2 = 3/5x - 9/5

y = 3/5x - 9/5 + 10/5 (2 can be is any fraction that consists of the numerator multiplied twice by the denominator, such as 2/1, 4/2, 8/4, etc.)

y = 3/5 + 1/5

The final equation of the line can be written as -

y = (3/5)x + 1/5

The general equation of a straight line is given by -

y = mx + c

Given is a line that passes through the points (3, 2), (8, 5), (13, 8) and (18, 11).

The line passes through the points (3, 2) and (8, 5). Therefore, the slope of the line will be -

m = (5 - 2)/(8 - 3) = 3/5

Now, consider the line : y = mx + c. For a point (3, 2) -

2 = (3/5) x 3 + c

2 = 9/5 + c

c = 2 - 1.8

c = 0.2

c = 1/5

Therefore, the final equation of the line can be written as -

y = (3/5)x + 1/5

To solve more questions on straight line, visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/21627259

#SPJ5

Answer:

A. 1/2 inch:10 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2*4.5=2 1/4

10*4.5=45

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

(-3)²

(-3) × (-3) ∴ [ ( - ) × ( - ) = + ]

9

Thus, (-3)² = 9

-TheUnknownScientist

Answer b,since the lines will intersect at one point, this system has one solution:

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the test

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

25 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 3 × 5 is 15 problems so multiple he 5 minutes by 5 and you get 25 minutes.

Answer:

1. So, Kate can put 45 video games each in 13 shipping boxes or 13 video games each in 45 shipping boxes.

2. Kate can put 117 video games each in 5 shipping boxes or 5 video games each in 117 shipping boxes.

3. Kate can put 9 video games each in 65 shipping boxes or 65 video games each in 9 shipping boxes.

Step-by-step explanation:

The prime factorization of 585 = 3² × 5 × 13.

So, the number of video games Kate can put in each shipping box are the different combinations of the prime factors. So, they are

1. 3² × 5 × 13 = 45 × 13 or 13 × 45.

So, Kate can put 45 video games each in 13 shipping boxes or 13 video games each in 45 shipping boxes.

2.  3² × 5 × 13 =  3² × 13 × 5 = 117 × 5 or 5 × 117

So, Kate can put 117 video games each in 5 shipping boxes or 5 video games each in 117 shipping boxes.

3.  3² × 5 × 13 =  3² × 13 × 5 = 9 × 65 or 65 × 9

So, Kate can put 9 video games each in 65 shipping boxes or 65 video games each in 9 shipping boxes.

Answer:

13ft

Step-by-step explanation:

5ft + 8ft=13ft

Answer:

-13Ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Results are below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price= $60

Unitary variable cost= $28

Fixed costs= $15,000

First, we need to calculate the average total cost:

Average cost= total cost / number of units

For example, for 1 unit and 10,000 units:

1 unit:

Average cost= 15,028/1 = 15,028

10,000 units:

Average cost= (15,000 + 28*10,000) / 10,000

Average cost= $29.5

Now, we can calculate the break-even point in units:

0= (60*x) - (28*x) - 15,000

x= number of units to break-even

0= 32x - 15,000

15,000/32= x

468.75=x

break-even point in units= 469

For the desired profit of $10,000:

10,000 = (60*x) - (28*x) - 15,000

25,000= 32x

781.25= x

Break-even point= 782 units

Finally, fixed costs dropped by $8,000:

0= 32x - 7,000

x= 7,000/32

x= 218.75

Break-even point= 219

Difference= 250 units

Answer:

x = 10

General Formulas and Concepts:

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define equation

50 + 30x = 250 + 10x

Step 2: Solve for x

Step 3: Check

Plug in x to verify it's a solution.

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

9+9+18

18+3=21

Answer:

7505÷11 = 682.27272727

Step-by-step explanation:

or you can just put a line over the 27

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7505÷11= 682.272727

Answer:

yesn't

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

yes last Friday i did this and i do it the same i got it correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

p²-2p+3

Step-by-step explanation:

(p + 3)(1 - p)​

p-p²+3-3p

=p²-2p+3

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is a right triangle you can you pythagorean theorem.

a^2+b^2=c^2

A= shortest side.

B=middle side.

C=longest/slanted side or hypotenuse.

So AB is the hypotenuse.

BC is the short side.

this means that AC is the middle side. Plug your numbers in.

25 + b^2 =169

b^2=144

b=12

AC=12

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

You substitute 9 in for x so it would look like this 5(9)-9 then you solve and you get the solution of 36.

If you liked my answer then please make it the brainliest it would be much apprecited. Thanks!

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}3&-1&\\-1&1/2\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The matrix system for the linear equations: x + 2y = 8, 2x + 6y = 9

[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&\\2&6\\\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{ccc}x\\y\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}8\\9\end{array}\right][/tex]

To get the coefficient of x and y, the inverse of the first matrix (let the first matrix be A) must be known.

[tex]A^{-1}[/tex] = (1 / determinant of A) x Adjoint of A

the determinant of A = (1 x 6) - (2 x 2) = 6 - 4 = 2

Adjoint of A = [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}6&-2&\\-2&1\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]A^{-1}[/tex]= [tex]\frac{1}{2} \left[\begin{array}{ccc}6&-2\\-2&1\end{array}\right][/tex] = [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}3&-1&\\-1&1/2\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Answer:

1.67 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

The problem above can be solved by using "direct proportion." This proportion shows that as one quantity increases, the other quantity increases and vice-versa.

Step 1: Represent the weight of the person on the moon by n.

Step 2: Set up a proportion.

            [tex]\frac{105}{175}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex]

Step 3: Cross multiply.

            105 x n = 175 x 1

            105n = 175

Step 4: Find n by dividing both sides by 105.

            n = [tex]\frac{175}{105}[/tex]

            n = 1.666 or 1.67 pounds (lowest term)

A pound of person on Earth will weigh 1.67 pounds on the moon.

Answer:

[tex]-\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the rise over run method to do this question.

Let's start at the coordinates (1,1)

If we go down 2 from that point and to the right 3 times then we see another point on the line (3, -1).

We would express this as 2 over 3 or [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex].

We aren't done yet however.

The line is sloping downwards and this means that the slope is negative.

So, the final answer is [tex]-\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

I hope this helps!!

- Kay

Step-by-step explanation:

angle MNP = angle QPL (corresponding angles, //lines) (A)

angle QLP is common angle (A)

By AA, the 2 triangles are similar.

Topic: congruence and similarity

If you like to venture further, feel free to check out my insta (learntionary). I'll be constantly posting math tips and notes! Thanks!

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

e.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

80-35= 45

45/15=3 so three more rooms are $15 a room

Total rooms are 9. The original 6 plus the additional 3.

80≥35+15x

45≥15x

3=x

Answer:

80 minutesssssss

Answer:

(edit) your answer is 80 min

Step-by-step explanation:

first we can set this up as a proportion.

so it would be 15 over 6 and your other side would be x over 32

so when u cross multiple your equation would be 6x = 480

then you divide both sides by 6 and when you divide 480 by 6 u will get 80

Answer:

5 2/3 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

8-2=6 minutes and 5-3=2 inches so it lost 2 inches in 6 minutes. This means it loses an inch every three minutes. Since we have to go back by 2 minutes we will have to figure out how much length we have to add to the candle to figure out how long it was originally by multiplying by 2/3 as 2 inches is 2/3 the required to remove an inch, so 1 inch * 2/3 = 2/3 of an inch. Add that to the length at two minutes and we have 5 2/3 inches as its original size.