HELP ASAP PLEASE URGENT!!
just tell me the color each equation goes to please

Answer:

31 1/4 units

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for volume of a rectangular prism is length x width x height.

We know the length of the width and height are given as 2 1/2 u.

In this case we can simply find the height by counting the amount of blocks high it is, which in this case is 5.

Then we multiply the numbers together.

2 1/2 x 2 1/2 x 5 = 31 1/4

Answer: 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

From the dice numbers only 1 and 2 are factors of 14

P(factor of 14)=2/6= 1/3

Answer:

A factor of 4 can only be 4 itself, which is one of the possible outcomes of rolling a 6-sided dice.

Therefore, the probability of getting a factor of 4 when rolling a 6-sided dice is:

P(getting factor of 4) = 1/6

This can be written as a fraction in the form of 1/n, where n is the total number of possible outcomes (6):

P(getting factor of 4) = 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

1. Greater than or equal to

2. a. 4 b. 4 or anything above four

3. Greater than or equal to

4. a. -4 b. -4 or anything above -4

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

Answer: -4,6

Step-by-step explanation:

To reflect a point across a horizontal line, we keep the x-coordinate the same, but negate the y-coordinate of the point. In this case, the line of reflection is y = -7. Therefore, to find the image coordinate of K′, we negate the y-coordinate of K and add 3 (since -7 - (-6) = -1):

K′(-4, -6 - (-7) + 3) = K′(-4, 4)

So the correct answer is K′(-4, 4)

Answer: 14.85

Step-by-step explanation:

1.485 * 10^1 =14.85

Answer:

The answer is the 4th option! (Reflection across y = -4)

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have any questions please ask me! :)

Answer:

Growth, Growth, decay, decay, growth, decay, growth, decay

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

33.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 sections the spinner can land on, and only one meets the requirement (less than 3, so the 2 section is the only one). Therefore the chance of landing on 2 is 1/3, or 0.333...... which can be converted into percentage by multiplying it by a hundred.

-0.333..... x 100 = 33.33333....

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because she bought a new hat for 22 dollars, subtract that from the 80 dollars.

1. 80-22=58

Next, each bow costs 5 dollars so you’ll have to see how many times 5 goes into 58 to get your answer.

2. 58/5= 11 with three dollars remaining.

That means Georgia can purchase 11 bows with the remaining money.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because she bought a new hat for 22 dollars, subtract that from the 80 dollars.

1. 80-22=58

Next, each bow costs 5 dollars so you’ll have to see how many times 5 goes into 58 to get your answer.

2. 58/5= 11 with three dollars remaining.

That means Georgia can purchase 11 bows with the remaining money.

Answer:

1/32

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling a 6 on a 6-sided die is 1/6, and the probability of rolling a 4 on a 6-sided die is also 1/6.

Assuming that the rolls are independent (i.e., the outcome of one roll does not affect the outcome of the other roll), the probability of rolling a 6 and then a 4 is the product of the probabilities of each individual event:

Probability of rolling a 6 and then a 4 = (Probability of rolling a 6) x (Probability of rolling a 4)

= (1/6) x (1/6)

= 1/36

Therefore, the probability of rolling a 6 and then a 4 on a 6-sided die rolled twice is 1/36, or approximately 0.0278 (2.78%).

Part - A = 1/36

Part - B = 1/4

Part - C = 1/6

The numbers on the cube are, 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 and 6.

Formula to calculate probability =
Total Number of the particular number / Total Number of Numbers

The probability of rolling 1 is 1/6 as there is only one 1 in a numbered cube.

The probability of rolling 6 is 1/6 as there is only one 6 in a numbered cube.

So, the probability of rolling 1 and 6 is 1/6 * 1/6.

The probability of rolling 1 and 6 = 1/36.

The numbers on the cube are, 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 and 6.

Formula to calculate probability =
Total Number of the particular number / Total Number of Numbers

The probability of rolling an even number is 3/6 = 1/2 because there are 3 even numbers in a numbered cube.

The probability of rolling an odd number is 3/6 = 1/2 because there are 3 odd numbers in a numbered cube.

So, the probability of rolling an even and an odd number is 3/6 * 3/6 = 1/2 * 1/2.

The probability of rolling an even and an odd number = 9/36 = 1/4.

The numbers on the cube are, 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 and 6.

Formula to calculate probability =
Total Number of the particular number / Total Number of Numbers

The probability of rolling a number that is less than 3 is 2/6 = 1/3 because there are 2 numbers that are less than 3 in a numbered cube.

The probability of rolling a number that is greater than 3 is 3/6 = 1/2 because there are 3 numbers that are greater than 3 in a numbered cube.

So, the probability of rolling a number that is less than 3 and a number that is greater than 3 is 2/6 * 3/6 = 1/3 * 1/2.

The probability of rolling a number that is less than 3 and a number that is greater than 3 is 6/36 = 1/6.

Hope my answer helps you.

:)

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Answer:

pls mark "harendraganesh" as brainlist that was the best answer I have ever seen

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

100%

all 3 can be divided into 36

Answer: 100%

Step-by-step explanation:

Because we know 1,2,3 can all go into 36 (36 is able to be divided by 1,2,3) and we want the percentage of the divisor of 36. We can determine that it would be 100% Since whatever card we pick, can be divided into 36. Sorry if that made no sense, I'm not the best at explaining this.

Answer: Your answer is 420 miles

Step-by-step explanation: I did this in middle school

Hope it helped :D

12 Popsicles I think I'm not sure

Part A

c = 66 per dress

Part B

$396

Okay, here are the step-by-step calculations:

Part A:

You were given the number 66. So we entered that as the cost (c) per dress in the equation.

Part B:

We were asked to find the cost of 6 dresses.

So we calculate:

Cost per dress (c) = $66

Number of dresses = 6

Total cost of 6 dresses =

$66 x 6 = $396

So the final answer for Part B is: $396

In summary:

We were given: Cost per dress (c) = $66

and asked for cost of 6 dresses

So we calculated: Cost per dress (c) = $66

Number of dresses = 6

Total cost = $66 x 6 = $396

Does this help explain the steps? Let me know if you have any other questions!

Answer:

C) 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

68.75 - 51.56 = 17.19

17.19 / 68.75 = .2500 estimated

0.2500 x 100 = 25.00%

25%

Answer: 1/5, 0.2, or 20%

Step-by-step explanation: P(4) means the probability (P) of getting the number 4, therefore written as P(4). As there are 5 cards, and 1 of them has a four on them, it can be written as 1/5, as one out of the five cards have a four on them. Convert it into a decimal, by using a calculator or past knowledge so 1 divided by 5. You get 0.2. Keep in mind that 1.0 is 100% and anything below, such as 0.5 (50%) or 0.1 (10%), are all decimals. Because we got 0.2, the answer in percentages is 20%, or 0.2 of 1.0.

Answer:

20%

Step-by-step explanation:

P stands for the chance of getting something, in this case it's the number 4.

There is 1 card that has 4 on it and 5 cards in total, so it would be 1/5

1/5 or/ 1 divided by 5 equals to 0.2 which is also equal to the percentage 20%

Answer:6/35

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6/35or 0.1714285714

Step-by-step explanation

Covert to same denominator of 35. This will equal 20/35-14/35 which is 6/35 or 0.1714285714

so first off, we know the hyperbola has a horizontal traverse axis, so that means equation wise, the positive fraction is the one with the "x" variable on it, center is the origin, meaning (h,k) is just (0,0), and we know the value for the distances "a" and "c", let's find "b".

[tex]\textit{hyperbola, horizontal traverse axis } \\\\ \cfrac{(x- h)^2}{ a^2}-\cfrac{(y- k)^2}{ b^2}=1 \qquad \begin{cases} center\ ( h, k)\\ vertices\ ( h\pm a, k)\\ c=\textit{distance from}\\ \qquad \textit{center to foci}\\ \qquad \sqrt{ a ^2 + b ^2} \end{cases} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \begin{cases} h=0\\ k=0\\ c=71000\\ a=45000 \end{cases}\implies \cfrac{(x- 0)^2}{ 45000^2}-\cfrac{(y- 0)^2}{ b^2}=1 \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill[/tex]

[tex]\stackrel{c}{71000}=\sqrt{\underset{ a }{45000^2}+b^2}\implies 71000^2=45000^2+b^2 \\\\\\ 71000^2-45000^2=b^2\implies \sqrt{71000^2-45000^2}=b\implies 54918.12\approx b \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \cfrac{(x- 0)^2}{ 45000^2}-\cfrac{(y- 0)^2}{ 54918.12^2}=1\implies {\Large \begin{array}{llll} \cfrac{x^2}{ 45000^2}-\cfrac{y^2}{ 54918.12^2}=1 \end{array}}[/tex]

Answer:16000

Step-by-step explanation:

b

Answer:

no triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the measures of a triangle is 180°.

70° + 85° + 105° = 260°

Since the sum of the given measures is 260°, no triangle with these angle measures can be constructed since it cannot exist.

Answer:

The answer is the X-Axis!

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have any questions ask me please! :)

Question 1 — Answer E

Question 2 — Answer B

Question 3 — Answer C

Question 4 — Answer D

Question 5 — Answer A

ANSWER — A regular polygon is a polygon that is equiangular and equilateral.

ANSWER — The squared from of the tiles you walk on indicate that they are polygons.

ANSWER — They teach us how to make patterns, how to use polygon is to make other shape.

ANSWER — The side must be straight.

ANSWER — Three edges of equal length and three angles between each pair of edges to be 60 degree.

Hope my answer helps you.

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Please mark my answer as the BRAINLIEST. Plsssssssssssssssssss

I will add you as my friend if you mark my answer as the BRAINLIEST.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 months of the year, so there are 12 possible choices for each draw. Since the first paper is replaced before the second draw, each draw can be considered as independent and with replacement.

(a) To draw April and then June, we need to draw April on the first draw (with probability 1/12), and then June on the second draw (with probability 1/12). The probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(April and then June) = (1/12) x (1/12) = 1/144

(b) To draw a month ending in r and then a month ending in y, we can choose from the following months: April, June, July, September, and November. There are 5 months that end in r, so the probability of drawing one of them on the first draw is 5/12. After replacing the first paper, there are still 12 months left in the hat, but now we want to draw a month ending in y. There are 4 months that end in y, so the probability of drawing one of them on the second draw is 4/12. Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(month ending in r and then month ending in y) = (5/12) x (4/12) = 5/36

(c) To draw May on the first draw and not draw May on the second draw, the probability of drawing May on the first draw is 1/12, and the probability of not drawing May on the second draw is 11/12 (since there are 11 months left in the hat after May is drawn on the first draw). Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(May and then not drawing May) = (1/12) x (11/12) = 11/144

Therefore, the probabilities are:

(a) 1/144

(b) 5/36

(c) 11/144

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 months of the year, so there are 12 possible choices for each draw. Since the first paper is replaced before the second draw, each draw can be considered as independent and with replacement.

(a) To draw April and then June, we need to draw April on the first draw (with probability 1/12), and then June on the second draw (with probability 1/12). The probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(April and then June) = (1/12) x (1/12) = 1/144

(b) To draw a month ending in r and then a month ending in y, we can choose from the following months: April, June, July, September, and November. There are 5 months that end in r, so the probability of drawing one of them on the first draw is 5/12. After replacing the first paper, there are still 12 months left in the hat, but now we want to draw a month ending in y. There are 4 months that end in y, so the probability of drawing one of them on the second draw is 4/12. Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(month ending in r and then month ending in y) = (5/12) x (4/12) = 5/36

(c) To draw May on the first draw and not draw May on the second draw, the probability of drawing May on the first draw is 1/12, and the probability of not drawing May on the second draw is 11/12 (since there are 11 months left in the hat after May is drawn on the first draw). Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(May and then not drawing May) = (1/12) x (11/12) = 11/144

Therefore, the probabilities are:

(a) 1/144

(b) 5/36

(c) 11/144

Answer:

$8.45

Step-by-step explanation:

$1.25 + $1.25 =$2.50

$3.96 + $2.50 + $2.50 = $8.95

$8.95 - $ 0.50= $8.45

So that's how I got my and.

Jalissa's mom spent $8.45 at the coffee shop.

Steps:-

Add:

First cup of coffee. $3.95

Additional refill ($1.25×2). $2.50

Bagel. $2.50

Less: Discount. ($0.50)

Total Amount spent by

Jalissa's mom. $8.45

Answer:

I'm gonna say the  second one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Your answer is -4+(-9)

Hope it helped :D

Answer: y+6

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to do this, we do 6 more than y. More than is going to be addition, and we get y+6 since it is 6 more than y.