For her first half-marathon, Mariam is getting ready. Mariam will rely on her motor neurons to send signals from her central nervous system to her leg muscles when she is running.
What do muscles do?Soft tissues include muscles. Your muscles are made up of many elastic fibers. Your body contains more than 600 muscles. The functions of various muscle groups vary. Many musculature assist you can move fast running or bouncing expertly weaving a needles.
What does a muscle do?Its ability to contract is their main characteristic. Movement is caused by muscles that are connected to blood vessels, internal organs, or bones. Muscle contraction is the primary cause of almost all bodily movement.
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Mariam is preparing for her first half-marathon. While running Mariam will be counting on her Motor neurons to relay messages from her CNS to her leg muscles.
The motor neuron is a type of neuron. They carry messages from the central nervous system to the muscles, causing movement. Sensory neurons and interneurons are the two other types of neurons in the nervous system. Motor neurons are also known as motoneurons. They are found in the spinal cord and brainstem and transmit impulses to muscles or glands.
Motor neurons in the spinal cord are typically the longest cells in the body. The neuron's cell body is found in the spinal cord's gray matter, and its axon extends out of the cord's white matter. Motor neurons are the only type of nerve cell that initiates movement.
When they receive impulses from the brain, they send electrical signals to the muscles they control to create movement.
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sedatives are given to __________.
The administration of sedatives slows brain activity.
A sedative is a medication that has a calming, relaxing effect; it may cause drowsiness in the patient but rarely results in sleep. Anxiety, tension, seizures, panic disorders, and sleep disturbances are a few frequent ailments that are treated using sedatives. The majority of sedatives that are used recreationally were originally intended for medicinal use.
CNS depressants make people drowsy; sedatives and hypnotics are frequently given to treat sleep problems like insomnia, while tranquilizers are used to treat anxiety or ease muscle spasms.
Sedative drugs include tranquilizers like sleeping pills. They consequently slow down how well your body and mind work. This could include things like your heartbeat, breathing, and mental patterns.
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Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing's triad?
A. blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min
B. blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg pulse, 120 beats/min respirations, 10 breaths/min
C. blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg pulse, 140 beats/min pulse, 140 beats/min respirations, 28 breaths/min
D. blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min
The sets of vital signs that depicts Cushing's triad is blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min.
Option D is correct,
What is Cushing's triad?Cushing's triad is referred to a set of signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the brain.
The Cushing's triad is made up of bradycardia (also known as a low heart rate), irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure.
The resting blood pressure is 120/80 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) and the pulse pressure is 40 and this is generally seen as a healthy pulse pressure. A pulse pressure greater than 40 mm Hg is considered unhealthy.
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Churning and mixing movements calledsegmentationtake place in theA. small intestine.B. stomach.C. esophagus.D. large intestine.
Churning and mixing movements called segmentation take place in the small intestines. That is option A.
What is small intestine?The small intestine is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is made up of the duodenum, jejunum and ileum and they take part in the digestion of food particles.
Segmentation is the muscular activity that divides and mixes the chyme by alternating between backward and forward movement of the gastrointestinal tract (GI) contents.
This process takes place mainly in the small intestine.
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Change in the U.S. healthcare system typically occurs via: a. federal legislation by the dominant political party b. massive changes in funding policy c. special memorandum voted on during scheduled elections d. compromise led by moderates who look for common ground
Answer: A- federal legislation by the dominant political party!:)
Severe fatigue and weakness are key signs of amyloidosis. a. True
b. False
based on both usual intake and physiological changes, older adults should make the following changes to their diets. select all that apply.
Older adults should make the following changes to their diets as Reduced energy intake may also be caused by physiological or hormonal changes brought on by aging, such as slower stomach emptying, altered hormone responses.
How do I know if I'm being hormonal?Heavy or irregular periods, missed periods, interrupted periods, or frequent periods are signs of a hormonal imbalance unique to AFAB individuals. Abundant hair on the face, chin, or other areas of the body is known as hirsutism. acne on the upper back, chest, or face.What age do you become hormonal?Most females begin puberty between the ages of 8 and 13, while most boys begin between the ages of 9 and 14. But starting earlier or later can also be OK. Puberty begins when certain brain hormones began to release. Chemical messengers called hormones direct the body's actions.To know more about hormonal visit
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This extension of one of the meninges covering the spinal cord attaches it to the coccyx.
Select one:
A. conus medullaris
B. filum terminale
C. denticulate ligament
D. dura mater
Which documents outline the curriculum standards for all DNP programs?
Question 26 options:
Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate
Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies
Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate and Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies
Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies and Middle-Range Theory in Principle and Practice
Question 27 (5 points)
Saved
Which "essential" is primarily concerned with the scientific foundations of nursing practice?
Question 27 options:
Essential I
Essential III
Essential IV
Essential VI
Question 28 (5 points)
Saved
How does Essential V pertain to advanced practice nurses?
Question 28 options:
Interprofessional collaboration in a multitiered healthcare environment
Evaluation, integration, translation, and application of evidence-based practice
Analysis of environmental data in the evaluation of population health
Involvement in healthcare policy and advocacy
Question 29 (5 points)
Saved
Essential II describes preparation of the DNP nurse in organizational and systems leadership. Which two other Essentials involve utilization of the leadership concepts presented in Essential II?
Question 29 options:
Essential III and Essential IV
Essential III and Essential V
Essential V and Essential VI
Essential V and Essential VIII
Question 30 (5 points)
Saved
How is focusing on the scientific underpinnings of nursing practice paradoxical in terms of discipline development?
Question 30 options:
It requires practitioners to adopt practice values of other disciplines rather than the unique knowledge of their specialty.
It requires nursing to emerge from other academic disciplines rather than from its own professional discipline.
It requires nurses to adopt the logical positivist viewpoint in their study even though the must adopt a humanistic viewpoint in their practice.
It requires collaboration with professionals in other discipline rather than relationship building within nursing itself.
Question 31 (5 points)
Saved
Middle-range theories in nursing can best be described as:
Question 31 options:
simplistic and general in focus.
abstract and broad in type.
concrete and narrow in scope.
didactic and restrictive in practice.
The document that outline the curriculum standards for all DNP programs is option B: The Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and the Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies
What are the DNP programs ?The Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and the Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies outline the curriculum standards for all Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) programs.
The Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice is a document published by the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) that provides guidelines for the content and structure of DNP programs.
Therefore, The Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies are a set of standards developed by the National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculties (NONPF) that outline the knowledge and skills that DNP-prepared nurse practitioners should possess upon graduation.
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Acute drug effects are those that
Acute drug effects are those that are caused by the immediate presence of the drug in the body. Drugs include any substance that, when eaten, modifies an organism's physiology or psychology.
Drugs are typically kept separate from foods and other nutrient-supporting items. Drugs may be consumed topically using a patch or suppository, smoked, injected, inhaled, applied topically, applied topically, or broken down sublingual. A drug is a chemical that, when administered to a living thing, has a biological effect. A drug is often a chemical molecule with a recognized pharmacological structure. Chemicals are employed in pharmaceutical treatments to treat, prevent, or diagnose illnesses as well as to enhance health. It may also be referred to as a thing or medicine.
The complete question is:
Acute drug effects are those that
-are dangerous.
-are caused by the immediate presence of the drug in the body.
-are unrelated to dose.
-last more than a day.
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CVS does not currently bill medicare part b for?
CVS does not currently bill medicare part b for the Continuous glucose monitors and nebulizers. The American government oversees the Medicare health insurance program.
The Social Security Administration (SSA), founded by Lyndon B. Johnson in 1965, is currently managed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). It provides health insurance for Americans 65 and older, individuals with end-stage renal disease, as well as some younger disabled persons. Part A of Medicare, which is divided into three parts, covers hospice care, inpatient hospital treatment, skilled nursing facility care, and some home health care (Hospital Insurance).
Medicare Part B covers preventative care, outpatient care, medical supplies, and doctor visits (Medical Insurance).
All prescription medications, flu shots, and other immunizations are covered by Medicare Part D. (prescription drug).
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james is a 35-year-old carpenter who weighs 154 lbs. how many grams of protein will he need per day?
An investigator proposes a study to determine the clinical relevance of a new assay technique to measure minimal residual disease (MRD) in adolescent (age 14-16) cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy. The study requires that two additional bone marrow aspirates be performed during the course of chemotherapy. The subject's chemotherapy will not be altered based on the results of the assay technique measures. However, future patients with cancer would benefit from improved interventions based on study findings. The IRB determined that the activity was a minor increase over minimal risk. Which of the following statements best describes the IRB approval requirements for involving adolescent cancer patients in the research study?
Assent of the child and permission of both parents are required is the statements best describes the IRB approval requirements for involving adolescent cancer patients in the research study.
For initiatives that: Comply with the criteria for research, IRB evaluation and approval are necessary. use human beings as well. include any interaction or intervention involving the use of identifiable private information involving human people. In accordance with this method, studies are allocated to one or more IRB members for a thorough examination of all materials. The study is then presented by the principal reviewer(s) at the IRB meeting that has been called, and after discussion among IRB members, a decision is made. IRB approval is only permitted by federal regulations if it occurs before the start of the study activities. Without first obtaining IRB approval, the IRB cannot order the investigator to destroy data or forbid them from reviewing or disseminating the information gathered.
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Does Medicare cover glasses
Answer:Medicare will only pay for contact lenses or eyeglasses from a supplier enrolled in Medicare, no matter if you or your supplier submits the claim.
Explanation:
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serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually not seen with ventricular rates less than:
a triple option plam is also called a _______?
Answer:
cafeteria plan
Explanation:
A client is admitted to the hospital with reports of chest pain. the nurse is monitoring the client and notifies the physician when the client exhibits: _________
A client is admitted to the hospital with reports of chest pain and the nurse is monitoring the client and notifies the physician when the client exhibits adventitious breath sounds.
Chest pain is discomfort within the chest together with a boring ache, a crushing or burning feeling, a pointy stabbing pain and pain that radiates to the neck or shoulder. It will have causes that are not because of underlying malady. Examples embrace work, weight, trauma to the chest or swallowing an oversized piece of food.
Adventitious breath sounds see sounds that are detected additionally to the expected breath sounds mentioned higher than. the foremost unremarkably detected extrinsic sounds embrace crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes.
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please, in the space provided below, list the 7 factors mentioned in the lecture that have prevented effective action against non-communicable diseases .
Anxiety and diabetes The WHO has recognized high blood pressure, high cholesterol, obesity, poor diet, smoking, physical inactivity, and excessive alcohol intake.
What is diabetes' primary underlying cause?Most diabetes kinds have an unknown specific etiology. Sugar accumulates in the blood in every situation. Due to inadequate insulin production by the pancreas, this occurs.
Can you lose diabetes?Diabetes type 2 has no known cure. However, it could be feasible to treat the illness in such a way that you no longer require medication to control it and your body is no longer negatively affected by having blood sugar levels that are too high.
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most hormones are taken up and degraded by the __________ and __________.
A. adrenal glands; intestines
B. liver; kidneys
C. blood; kidneys
D. liver; spleen
E. spleen; kidneys
when viewed from the perspective of transfer of learning, the inclusion of movement and context variability in practice can be seen as a means of enhancing positive transfer from the practice to the test contexts.
Historical context always serves as the base for modern business practice when viewed from the perspective of transfer of learning.
What are the radical changes in the business?The radical changes has been the business can be clearly understood from the historical context and it can even make the present business trend understands better.
To connect this with a famous proverb, "Change is constant", so a change in business trend cannot be stopped, it actually shows the growth of the country / universe. Even if it changes, it has happened by studying and practicing the history of business only.
Therefore, Historical context always serves as the base for modern business practice when viewed from the perspective of transfer of learning.
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Cancer susceptibility can run in families due to ________
A germline mutation can cause cancer susceptibility to run in families.
When your cells split and duplicate, countless genetic changes are conceivably possible. There are two different kinds of genetic mutations:
Germline mutationsSomatic mutationsA genetic alteration occurs in a reproductive cell (egg or sperm) and is absorbed into the DNA of every cell in the offspring’s body. A variation (or mutation) present in the germline that can be passed from parent to child is said to be inherited. Also known as a germline variation.
Somatic mutations are modifications to a person’s DNA that take place in any cell that isn’t a germ cell after conception (egg or sperm cell). Somatic mutations, which are not hereditary and occur sporadically or randomly, are unrelated to a person’s family history and are not passed down from parents to children. They also cannot be passed on to subsequent generations.
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a client with enteritis reports frequent diarrhea. what assessment should the nurse should anticipate?
Metabolic acidosis is the client's condition. Normal or high anion gap conditions define metabolic acidosis.
The anion gap is typical if the main issue is a direct loss of bicarbonate, a chloride gain, or a decrease in ammonia synthesis. The disease is referred to as high anion gap acidosis if the main issue is the buildup of organic anions (such ketones or lactic acid). Increased breathing to expel extra CO2, an increase in ammonia production, acid excretion (H+) by the kidneys, with salt and bicarbonate retention, are just a few compensatory mechanisms to correct this imbalance.The nurse may anticipate lethargy, weariness, muscle weakness etc.
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approximately what percent calories from fat would be provided by a soup with 200 calories per serving and 99 calories from fat?
Approximately 50 percent calories from fat would be provided by a bowl of soup containing 200 calories and 99 calories from fat.
Energy is measured in calories. Calories in nutrition relate to the energy that humans obtain from the food and liquids they consume as well as the energy they expend when engaging in physical activity. On every food package, the nutritional information includes a list of calories. Many diet plans for losing weight include cutting calories.
Calories are the units of energy used by your body during food digestion and absorption. A meal might provide your body extra energy if it has more calories. Your body stores excess calories as body fat when you consume more calories than you need. Even foods without fat might have a lot of calories.
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Full Question: Approximately what percent calories from fat would be provided by a bowl of soup containing 200 calories and 99 calories from fat?
72%
67%
44%
50%
In addition to the Nutrition Facts panel, consumers may find various claims on food labels. These claims include nutrient claims, health claims, and structure-function claims. Identify the following as a nutrient claim, a health claim, or a structure-function claim. (Note: There may be more than one type of claim.) Label Claim "Low in sodium." "Antioxidants protect brain health" "Made with 100% whole-grain oats" "Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect." "Fiber promotes regularity." Nutrient claim Health claim Nutrient claim Structure-function claim Nutrient claim
The low in sodium is nutrition claim, the antioxidants protect brain health is structure-function claim, the made with 100% whole-grain oats is nutrition claim, the folate statement is health claim, and then the fiber statement is structure function claim.
Nutrition claim is a claim about nutrition take body must take or nutrition status in a product. Structure-function claim is a claim about how the nutrition or other component can affects the function of the body. Then, the health claim is a claim about the health condition including the disease.
For statement "Low in sodium" and "Made with 100% whole-grain oats" it consider as nutrition status in a product, so this is nutrition claim.
For statement "Antioxidants protect brain health" and "Fiber promotes regularity" it tell how the nutrition can affect the function of the body, so this is structure-function claim.
For statement "Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect." it tell the diseases that can infect babies, so this is health claim.
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Which of the following foods in the protein foods group of the USDA Food Intake Patterns has the highest nutrient density?
a. luncheon meats
b. fried fish
c. duck with skin
d. chicken with no skin
e. bacon
The protein foods group of the USDA Food Intake Patterns has the maximum nutritional density, which is found in chicken without skin.
D is the ideal choice.
Which one of the following items is a part of the protein food group according to the USDA eating guidelines?Beans, peas, lentils, seafood of all kinds, meat, poultry, and eggs, as well as nuts, seeds, and soy products, are all considered protein foods. The Vegetable Group also includes lentils, beans, and peas. Visit the Beans, Peas, and Lentils page to find out more.
What are the USDA's food consumption patterns?To provide flexibility in how the Dietary Guidelines requirements can be followed, the USDA has developed three food patterns: the Healthy U.S.-Style Pattern, the Healthy Vegetarian Pattern, and the Healthy Mediterranean-Style Pattern.
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What are the 4 unintentional injuries in the home?
Answer:
Drowning – in tubs, lakes, and pools
Poisoning – from snakes, carbon monoxide, pesticides, chemicals in the home, alcohol
Accidental drug overdose – from prescribed drugs, hard drugs or mixed substances
Car accidents – including motorcycles, bikers, and pedestrians
Explanation:
I don't need much to explain but just be careful
Trace a drop of blood from the left ventricle of the heart to the wrist of the right hand and back to the heart. Now trace it to the dorsum of the right foot and back to the right heart.
Blood circulation in the wrist:
Oxygen rich blood: left ventricle → aortic arch → brachiocephalic artery → right subclavian artery → right axillary artery → right brachial artery → right ulnar artery → wrist.Back to the heart: ulnar vein → right brachial vein → right axillary vein → right subclavian vein → right cephalic brachial vein superior vena cava → right atrium.Blood circulation in the legs:
Oxygen-rich blood: left ventricle → thoracic and abdominal aortic arch → right external iliac artery → right common femoral artery → superficial femoral artery → right popliteal artery → right anterior tibial artery → right dorsalis pedis artery → dorsum of the foot.Back to the heart: right femoral vein → right external iliac vein → right common iliac vein → left common iliac vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium.Wrist:
Blood begins in the left ventricle and leaves the aortic arch. From there it enters the brachiocephalic artery and then the right subclavian artery. Blood flows through the armpit, into the upper arm, from the subclavian to the right armpit, and then to the right upper arm. Finally, blood flows through the right ulnar artery to the wrist. To return to the heart, blood first flows into the right ulnar vein and then into the right humeral vein. Like the arteries, the brachial veins also join to form the right axillary and subclavian veins and eventually reach the right cephalic brachial vein. Finally, blood enters the superior vena cava and returns to the heart in the right atrium.
Foot:
Blood leaves the left ventricle, enters the aortic arch, and goes further down through the thoracic and abdominal aorta. Finally, the blood branches around the level of L4 to the right common iliac artery and then further into the right external iliac artery. Blood then flows through the right common femoral and superficial femoral arteries until it reaches the right popliteal artery. From there it divides into the right anterior tibial artery and finally reaches the back of the leg on the right by the dorsal pedis artery. The blood then returns to the heart via the anterior tibial vein, which empties into the right iliac vein. Blood then flows into the right femoral vein, right external iliac vein, and right common iliac vein. It then joins the left common vena cava to form the inferior vena cava, which empties into the right atrium.
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The patient's pain is described as sharp. They have a history of cancer with an lumpectomy and they are retired. Which information best belongs in the Subjective section of the chart?Cancer HxSharpLumpectomyRetiredFather was diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident at age 60, belongs in the ___.DxFHxPSHxPlanWhich part of the visit often requires the doctor to touch the patient?Discussing the planPerforming the physical exmDischarging the patientGathering the patient's historySelect the objective finding that the doctor most likely expects if the patient has shortness or breath.Genital erythemaAbdominal tendernessPoor lung soundsFinger deformityFinish this statement: Pertinent negatives point the doctor _______.Toward a diagnosisAway from a diagnosisLeftwardDownwardKash's HTN is poorly controlled and his ear has been red and painful since yesterday. Is the hypertension acute or chronic?AcuteChronic
The patient's pain is described as sharp. They have a history of cancer with an lumpectomy and they are retired. Sharp best belongs in the Subjective section of the chart.
Pain is an unpleasant feeling that is frequently triggered by stimuli that are harmful or powerful. According to the International Association for the Study of Pain, pain is "an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience comparable to, or approximates, that associated with actual or potential tissue injury." In medical diagnostics, pain is thought to be an indication of an underlying illness. People are driven by pain to protect a broken body part from further harm while it heals and to protect themselves from future potentially dangerous situations. Some discomfort may continue to exist even after the noxious stimulus has been removed and the body appears to have healed. The bulk of pain disappears as the body heals and the noxious stimulus is removed.
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for which of the following substance use disorders are there fda-approved pharmacologic treatments?
Safe and effective medications are currently available and approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of alcohol use disorder, opioid use disorder, and tobacco use disorder.
A drug is any synthetic, natural, or endogenous (produced by the body) molecule that affects a cell, tissue, organ, or organism biochemically or physiologically.
Pharmacology is a branch of medicine, biology, and pharmaceutical sciences that studies how drugs or medications work (sometimes the word pharmacon is used as a term to encompass these endogenous and exogenous bioactive species).
More specifically, it is the study of how interactions between a living thing and chemicals impact whether biochemical activity is normal or pathological. Pharmaceuticals are chemicals that have therapeutic qualities.
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Jalisa has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. During treatment, the therapist indicates Jalisa also meets the diagnostic criteria for another disorder. Which of the following is Jalisa LEAST likely to have, based on comorbidity rates?
According to comorbidity rates, Jalisa is LEAST likely to have major depressive disorder.
A mental health disorder characterized by the a persistently low mood or loss of interest in activities, resulting in significant impairment in daily life. Possible causes of distress include a combination of biological, psychological, as well as social factors. According to new research, these factors could result in changes in brain function, such as altered activity from certain neural circuits in the brain.
Major depression is characterised by a persistent feeling of sadness or lack of interest, which can result in a variety of physical and behavioral symptoms. Changes throughout sleep, appetite, energy level, ability to focus, daily behaviour, or self-esteem are examples of these. Ideation is also associated with depression. Medication, talk therapy, or a combination of the two is usually the mainstay of treatment. According to new research, these treatments may help to normalize changes to the brain associated with depression.
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according to the icd-10-cm coding guidelines which condition has a causal relationship with hypertension?
I16. The ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index assumes a causal linkage between hypertension and heart involvement and assigns hypertension and heart problems to category
I11 (hypertensive heart disease) since the two conditions are linked by the phrase "with" in the Alphabetic Index.
When assigning hypertension (HTN) diagnostic codes, there is a hypothesized causal association between hypertension and cardiac involvement, as well as hypertension and kidney involvement.
ICD-9 codes for essential hypertension were 401.0 (malignant), 401.1 (benign), or 401.9. (unspecified). Individuals who match the criteria for hypertension but do not have concomitant heart or renal illness are assigned a single code in ICD-10. That designation is I10, which stands for Essential (primary) hypertension.
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