Essential fat comprises 8-12% of women's body weight. Body mass index (BMI) measures body fat is false.
For men, essential body fat accounts for about 3% of body mass, while it accounts for between 8 to 12% for women. Due to childbearing and hormonal functions, women are thought to have more essential body fat than men.
One kind of screening tool is BMI. Measuring the person's size is helpful. The body mass index can be used to predict conditions like cancer, diabetes, heart disease, and difficulty breathing. Although BMI has a moderate correlation with more precise measures of body fat 1,2,3, it does not directly measure body fat. Additionally, these more direct measures of body fatness 4,5,6,7,8,9 appear to be as strongly correlated with various metabolic and disease outcomes as BMI.
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as race-day approaches, anthony wants to increase the percentage of total kilocalories in his diet from carbohydrate to increase his glycogen stores. if he consumes 3200 kcal/day during the training period and 60% of his kcal/day are supplied by carbohydrate, how many grams of carbohydrate does he consume per day?
If he consumes 3200 kcal/day during the training period and 60% of his kcal/day are supplied by carbohydrate, 375 grams of carbohydrate does he needs to consume per day.
Carbohydrates, or carbs, are sugar molecules. Along side proteins and fats, carbohydrates are one in every of 3 main nutrients found in foods and drinks. Your body breaks down carbohydrates into glucose. Glucose, or blood sugar, is that the main supply of energy for your body's cells, tissues, and organs.
Glycogen could be a multibranched sugar of glucose that is a style of energy storage in animals, fungi, and microorganism. The sugar structure represents the most storage style of aldohexose within the body.
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a healthcare service company delivering in-home treatment to the elderly receives referrals from a medicare authorized provider for a fee. this activity becomes an illegal kickback scheme when:
When a provider recommends unnecessary treatments and is reimbursed by Medicare for doing so.
What qualifies as Medicare?Medicare is a form of medical insurance for those 65 and older. Three months before turning 65, you can first sign up for Medicare. If you have a disability, end-stage renal disease (ESRD), or ALS (also known as Lou Gehrig's disease), you might be qualified for Medicare sooner.You may choose how you want to sign up for Medicare. You can purchase a Medicare Supplement Insurance (Medigap) policy from a private insurance provider if you decide to have Original Medicare (Part A and Part B) coverage.If they have worked and paid Medicare taxes for a sufficient amount of time, the majority of people 65 and older are eligible for free Medicare hospital insurance (Part A). You can enroll in Medicare Part B medical insurance by making a monthly premium payment. Some beneficiaries who earn more will pay a higher Part B premium each month.Learn more about Medicare refer :
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which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to assess in an infant diagnosed with ventricular septal defect (vsd)?
Small ventricular septal defects are rarely problematic. A nurse usually discovers these holes during a routine physical exam by noticing an extra heart sound called a murmur.
What is an infant ventricular septal defect?
A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart birth defect in which there is a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the two lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart. The ventricular septum is yet another name for this wall.
Large and medium-sized VSDs can cause noticeable symptoms. When infants attempt to feed, their breathing may become faster and they may become tired. They may begin to sweat or cry while feeding, and they may gain weight gradually.
Therefore, These symptoms suggest that the VSD will not close on its own and that the infant may require heart surgery.
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which specialized care training would the nurse include when preparing families of high-risk newborns for discharge?
The specialized care training that a nurse would prepare the families of high-risk newborns for discharge is the respiratory evaluation as it is the highest priority for newborn care.
What is high-risk newborn care?The high-risk newborns is the group of newborns who will very likely develop a severe acute condition or disease. Neonatologists are faced with the high-risk newborns which represents the majority of patients admitted to the neonatal intensive care units in the hospital.
Newborns are highly susceptible to infections, and thus prevention is required. The prevention of infection constitutes a major part of nursing care and parent teaching. The Cracks in skin, particularly on the newborn's hands, feet, and the umbilical cord, are the most vulnerable sites for infection. In every newborn contact, the respiratory evaluation is necessary as this is the highest priority in the case of newborn care. They can easily get respiratory tract infections which could cause dead.
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a client diagnosed with delusional disorder who uses excessive health care resources most likely has which type of delusions?
Somatic delusions are likely present in patients with a diagnosis of delusional disease who use an excessive amount of medical services.
Somatic delusional patients think they are physically ill. Somatic delusional patients consume an excessive number of medical resources. There are many subtypes for somatic delusions. Erotomanic delusions are defined by the delusion that the "loved object," who is typically married, has a higher socioeconomic level, or is otherwise unreachable, has a deep love for the client. Grandiose delusional clients believe they have great, underappreciated skill or have discovered something significant; a less frequent presentation is the delusion of a special relationship with a famous person or actually being a famous person.
One of the main causes of somatic delusions, somatic symptom disorder is one of the six delusional diseases recognised by medical professionals. Somatic delusions, however, can also show during psychotic episodes, which can occur in connection with a variety of mental diseases. Somatic delusions cause people to be completely convinced that there is something physically, biologically, or medically wrong with them. Because of this conviction, they may experience a variety of "symptoms" that serve to confirm their worst suspicions.
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After reviewing the major types of anemia, students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify what as an example of a hemolytic anemia?
Pernicious anemia
Sickle cell anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Folic acid deficiency anemia
Using the theories of anemia, we got that Sickle cell anemia as an example of hemolytic anemia after reviewing the major types of anemia.
Anemia or anaemia (British English) is the blood disorder in which the blood has a reduced ability to carry oxygen due to the lower than normal number of red blood cells, or the reduction in the amount of hemoglobin. When anemia comes on the slowly, the symptoms are often vague, such as tiredness, weakness, the shortness of breath, headaches, and a reduced ability to exercise. When anemia is acute, symptoms may include the confusion, feeling like one is going to pass out, loss of consciousness, and the increased thirst. Anemia must be significant before the person becomes noticeably pale. Additional symptoms may occur depending on underlying cause. Preoperative anemia can increase the risk of needing the blood transfusion following surgery.
Hence, After reviewing the major types of anemia, students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify an example of a hemolytic anemia is Sickle cell anemia.
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after recovering from a gunshot wound to the right shoulder area, a patient had continued difficulty abducting his arm. it was determined that a nerve of the brachial plexus was damaged. which nerve was most likely damaged and which muscle was most likely affected?
Axillary nerve and deltoid muscle was most likely damaged and affected
The axillary nerve has each a motor and a sensory distribution of innervation.
It has motor fibres that innervate the deltoid muscle, acting as an abductor, flexor and extensor on the shoulder joint, in addition to the teres minor muscle, allowing lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint.
As stated above, it has sensory innervation to the skin of the arm superficial to decrease part of the the deltoid muscle and superficial the upper a part of the long head of the triceps, because the superior/upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm.
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the nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl who is hospitalized following repair of a fractured femur. the child's parents have asked that the hospital chaplain visit this sunday. based on the child's developmental stage, what activities would be appropriate during the chaplain's visit? select all that apply.
The activities that would be appropriate during the chaplain's visit are:
Reading of a short prayerChurch hymns being sungMaking religious figure drawingsWhat is femur?
The femur is the bone in your thigh. This is the longest and most durable bone in your body.
The upper leg bone or the rear leg is the femur, also referred to as the thighbone. At the acetabulum, the head and hip come together as a ball-and-socket joint.
The ligamentum teres femoris, located in the socket, as well as powerful surrounding ligaments, keep the head in place.
Usually, a femoral shaft fracture results in excruciating agony very away. The wounded limb won't be able to bear weight, and it can appear deformed—shorter than the other leg and no longer straight.
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which extrapyramidal side effect is noted by a client who has bradykinesia and a shuffling gait?
Answer:
My answer would be tremors.
after compute analysis of a client's 24-hour recall is completed, results show the following breakdown of her intake: 2000 calories, 60 g total fat, 20 g saturated fat, and 300 mg cholesterol. the dietitian counseling this client on a therapeutic lifestyle changes diet should advide her to:
Decrease her intake of saturated fat and cholesterol.
Rationale:
Step 1: Determine % kcal from total fat:
60 g x 9 kcal/g = kcal from fat
2000
= or % total calories
Step 2: Determine % kcal from saturated fat:
20g x 9 kcal/g = kcal from sat. fat
2000
= or % total calories
Reasoning: This diet exceeds the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes Diet requirements for saturated fat and cholesterol, although having an adequate quantity of total fat (27 percent of total calories).
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the nurse is providing dietary instructions to the client with anemia. the client tells the nurse that the iron pills are very expensive, and it will be difficult to pay for the pills and buy the proper food. what is the most appropriate nursing response?
The nurse who is giving dietary instructions to the client dealing with anemia should instruct the client that the client will be fine as long as he takes Iron pills.
In the question, it is stated that the nurse is dealing with a client who is suffering from Anemia. The nurse is providing dietary instructions to the client. The client has an issue regarding difficulty maintaining the expenses of pills and proper food.
In such a situation, the nurse should instruct the client to continue the Iron pills and not stop them as it regulates the Iron level in the body. The nurse should tell the client that the situation will be fine as long as Iron Pills are included in his diet.
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the nurse assesses the respiratory status of an infant. which finding should be of most concern to the nurse?
The nurse assesses the respiration repute of an infant. Tachypnea is the locating that need to be of maximum or most difficulty to the nurse.
Tachypnea is the time period that your fitness care company makes use of to explain your respiratory if it's miles too fast, in particular when you have fast, shallow respiratory from a lung ailment or different clinical cause. The time period hyperventilation is normally used in case you are taking rapid, deep breaths. For kids more youthful than 2 years of age, the nurse need to auscultate the apical pulse with the stethoscope on the factor of most depth simply above and outdoor of the left nipple on the 1/3 or fourth intercostal space.
Infants 1 to eleven months old: eighty to one hundred sixty beats consistent with minute. Children 1 to two years old: eighty to a hundred thirty beats consistent with minute. Children three to four years old: eighty to one hundred twenty beats consistent with minute. Children five to six years old: seventy five to a hundred and fifteen beats consistent with minute. The nice spot to experience the heart beat in an toddler is the top am, referred to as the brachial pulse. Lay your child down at the returned with one arm bent so the hand is up through the ear.
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The combining form that means urea nitrogen is?
Using the theories of nitrogen, we got that the combining form that means urea nitrogen is Azot.
Nitrogen is very reactive element. It actually belong the p-block elements in periodic table. Its atomic number is 7 and atomic mass is around 15g.
Urea contains the following atoms.
1. 4 hydrogen
2.1 carbon
3. 1 oxygen
4.2 nitrogen
The molecular weight/ molar mass/urea mass of urea is and its density is . It appears as a white solid and its melting point is . Urea mainly consists of the nitrogen, carbon, and oxygen. It turns into the urine in the concentrate form.
Hence, The combining form that means urea nitrogen is Azot.
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the nurse understands that which of the following medications will be administered to the client for 6 to 12 weeks following prosthetic porcine valve surgery?
a) Warfarin
b) Digoxin
c) Furosemide
d) Aspirin
what instructions would a nurse give to an adolescent to prevent sexually transmitted infections eaq
Answer:
A firm, smooth, egg-shaped organ can be palpated.
Each testicle is examined individually after relaxing the scrotal skin.
The thumb and fingers of both hands can be used to apply firm and gentle pressure.
A raised swelling that can be palpated on the superior aspect of the testicle is the epididymis.
Explanation:
your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. he is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. you immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the:
A patient who has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps who is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain is immobilized on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine.
What is the spine?The spine encompasses the bones, muscles, tendons, and other tissues that reach from the base of the skull to the tailbone.
The spine encloses the spinal cord and the fluid surrounding the spinal cord.
The spine has so many functions which include the following:
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psilocybe mexicana and psilocybe cubensis are examples of 1. anticholinergics. 2. psychoactive mushrooms. 3. plants containing mescaline. 4. poisonous fungi.
Psilocybe mexicana and psilocybe cubensis are examples of: psychoactive mushrooms. It is because psilocybin is obtained from Teonanacatl mushroom.
What is a psychoactive mushroom?Psychoactive mushroom, psilocybin mushroom, commonly known as the magic mushroom is a group of fungi that releases psilocybin to increase the dopamine in our brain. The psilocybin from this mushroom works by fostering a greater connection between different regions of the user’s brain and freeing them from excessive self-focus. It also activates the serotonin and dopamine receptors. They work similarly to LSD and affect our brains the same way. Because of this effect, magic mushrooms are used for medicines to recreational drugs.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (sle). the patient denies a family history of this disease. which information in the patient's history identifies a likely cause of the onset of symptoms?
The nurse is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus. Procainamide information in the patient's history identifies a likely cause of the onset of symptoms.
PCA, an antiarrhythmic medication, is used to treat cardiovascular arrhythmias. It is a sodium channel blocker of cardiomyocytes, according to Vaughan Williams' classification system. Along with the INa current, it also reduces the K+ current of the IKr rectifier. Procainamide is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias including ectopy and tachycardia as well as supraventricular arrhythmias such atrial fibrillation, re-entrant, and automatic supraventricular tachycardia. For instance, a rising corpus of literature supporting this particular reason is collecting despite the fact that it was once thought to be insufficient for the purpose. It can be used to treat atrial fibrillation that has just started.
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the nurse is assessing a newborn with heart failure before administering the prescribed digoxin. in reviewing the laboratory data, the nurse notes that the newborn has a digoxin blood level of 1.6 ng/ml (2.05 mmol/l) and an apical heart rate of 90 beats/min. the mother also tells the nurse that the newborn just vomited her formula. which intervention should the nurse take?
A newborn's apical pulse rate ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. Digoxin levels should be between 0.5 and 0.8 ng/dL (0.64 and 1.02 mmol/L) for therapeutic purposes. The nurse would withhold the medicine and inform the medical professional since the patient's apical pulse rate is low and their blood level of digoxin is elevated, which indicates toxicity.
Heart failure is treated with digoxin, typically in combination with other drugs. Additionally, several forms of irregular heartbeat are treated with it (such as chronic atrial fibrillation). Treating heart failure may increase your heart's durability and maintain your capacity to walk and exercise. Your capacity for exercise may also be improved by treating an irregular heartbeat. Digoxin is a member of the cardiac glycosides class of drugs. It functions by having an impact on certain minerals (sodium and potassium) within cardiac cells. As a result, the heart is put under less stress and is better able to keep up a regular, steady beating.
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a 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. as you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. you should:
In this case apply direct pressure to the wound is the best option you have
Apply direct pressure on the cut or wound with an easy fabric, tissue, or piece of gauze till bleeding stops.
If blood soaks thru the material, don’t get rid of it. put more material or gauze on pinnacle of it and retain to apply pressure.
If the wound is at the arm or leg, raise the limb above the coronary heart, if possible, to help slow bleeding.
Wash your arms once more after giving the first useful resource and earlier than cleansing and dressing the wound.
Do not apply a tourniquet except the bleeding is severe and not stopped with direct pressure.
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a 64-year-old man has sought care because of recent lower leg pain that occurs when he walks and diminishes when he rests. the nurse recognizes that this patient is experiencing intermittent claudication. what should the nurse suspect from this finding?
The nurse suspect from this finding as the nurse recognizes that this patient is experiencing intermittent claudication i that he affected person has arterial insufficiency to his decrease extremities.
Claudication is mostly a symptom of peripheral artery disease, wherein the arteries that deliver blood to the palms or legs, normally the legs, are narrowed. The narrowing is normally because of a buildup of fatty deposits (plaques) at the artery walls.
Intermittent claudication is muscle ache that occurs while you're energetic and forestalls while you rest. It's normally a symptom of blood glide issues like peripheral artery disease. Over time, this will worsen and result in severe fitness issues and complications.
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a study aims to evaluate a smoking cessation program between two groups. the first group received one supportive phone call from a nurse 10 days after attending an educational program. the second group received weekly phone calls from a nurse after attending an educational program. what is the dependent variable?
Since the smoking cessation program is the outcome (the dependent variable), exclusion of smoking behavior is correct.
What are the most successful smoking cessation programs?A smoking cessation program is an individualized treatment plan to help you quit smoking. A smoking cessation program provides personalized support to stop smoking. This includes: One-on-one consultation with a MinuteClinic provider. Recognized as one of the most effective smoking cessation programs in the country, Freedom From Smoking has helped hundreds of thousands of people quit smoking permanently and is now available in a variety of formats. What is the initial treatment for smoking cessation?First-Line Therapy - First-line pharmacotherapy for smoking cessation includes nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, and bupropion. These treatments are aimed at reducing nicotine withdrawal symptoms and making it easier to quit smoking.
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a nurse is reevaluating a client receiving iv fibrinolytic therapy. which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A nurse is reevaluating a client receiving IV fibrinolytic therapy and the finding of an altered level of consciousness requires immediate intervention by the nurse.
Fibrinolytic therapy is most frequently wont to treat heart failure (blocked arteries of your heart) and stroke (blocked arteries of your brain). however it may also treat: embolism (blocked arteries of your lung).
An altered level of consciousness (ALOC) is a state of reduced alertness or inability to arouse because of low awareness of the setting. Coma is outlined as a whole lack of recognition with no response to the environment however intact eye-opening and no eye movement
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after moving a 36 week pregnant trauma patient to your stretcher, you note she sudden becomes pale and her blood pressure decreases to 90/42. you should first:
A 36-week pregnant trauma patient is transferred to your stretcher, and you observe that she suddenly turns pale and her blood pressure drops to 90/42. We ought to check her into an urgent care facility.
What does pregnancy mean medically?The term "pregnancy" is used to describe the time when a fetus develops inside a woman's uterus or womb. From the last menstrual cycle to delivery, the average pregnancy lasts roughly 40 weeks, or just over 9 months. Trimesters are the names given to the three phases of pregnancy by healthcare professionals.
Do medical emergencies arise when pregnant?Life-threatening emergencies require ambulances; labor is not one of those situations. It's vital to go over the symptoms of a typical labor with your midwife while you're pregnant.
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a nurse injects a medication by iv (intravenous) push instead of im (intramuscular) as ordered by the physician. the patient goes into cardiac arrest and dies as a result of this medication error. the nurse has worked at the facility for 15 years and this is his first error. a correct determination by the peer review committee would be that
A correct determination by the peer review committee would be that the employer terminate the nurse's employment.
IV push permits for administration of associate degree antibiotic during a nominal fluid volume. little fluid volumes is significantly helpful in patients United Nations agency square measure fluid-restricted, like patients with acute volume overload or acute failure. the medication is “pushed” into your blood with a syringe. Your IV line will ought to be flushed.
A medication administered into a muscle is thought as an intramuscular (IM) injection. The IM route permits for speedy absorption of specific medications. selecting a muscle relies on the medication volume and also the age or size of the patient.
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nurses work to serve the population, and they know that which priority population needs to be served by care coordination?
Nurses work to serve the population, and they know that most vulnerable and the frail population needs to be served by care coordination.
Health equity is achieved when everyone has a fair and just opportunity to be as healthy as possible. Nurses are well positioned to play a major role in addressing the underlying causes of poor health by understanding and recognising the wide range of factors that influence how well and long people live, helping to create individual- and community-targeted solutions, and facilitating and working with interdisciplinary and multi sector teams and partners to implement those solutions. Nurses have the potential to reshape the landscape of health equity over the next decade by expanding their roles, working in new settings and in new ways, and markedly expanding efforts to partner with communities and other sectors.
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the nurse is preparing a subcutaneous dose of bethanechol prescribed for a client with urinary retention. before giving the dose, the nurse checks to see that which medication is available on the emergency cart for use if needed?
Atropine Sulfate is the drug on the emergency cart that can be used if necessary.
A cholinergic overdose might occur if bethanechol chloride is administered. Atropine sulfate, an anticholinergic, is the remedy and should be accessible in case of overdose.
The treatment for acetaminophen overdose is acetylcysteine. Heparin's antagonist is protamine sulfate. The warfarin-antidote is vitamin K. (Coumadin).
Atropine Sulfate is used to relax smooth muscles and prevent nerve activation of glands and muscles. Additionally, it is utilized to speed up the heartbeat, lessen secretions, and alleviate the side effects of several toxins. It is a specific kind of tropane alkaloid and antimuscarinic agent.
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the nurse cares for a client with superficial partial-thickness burn injuries to the lower extremities. the client is ordered iv morphine for pain. the nurse understands narcotics are given via iv during the initial management of pain because
When a nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered superficial partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities. IV morphine is prescribed for the client's pain. Because tissue edema may interfere with drug absorption via other routes, the nurse understands that narcotics are administered intravenously during the initial management of pain.
Because of the altered tissue perfusion caused by the burn injury, IV administration is required. Morphine injections are administered to treat moderate to severe pain. Morphine belongs to the class of medications known as opiate (narcotic) analgesics. It works by altering how the brain and nervous system react to pain.
Edema occurs when tiny blood vessels (capillaries) in your body leak fluid. The fluid accumulates in the surrounding tissues, causing swelling. Mild cases of edema can be caused by: Sitting or remaining in one position for an extended period of time. Excessive consumption of salty foods.
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Jim was in an automobile accident and now experiences emotions differently than before the accident. For instance, he now cries more easily and says that when he is angry, it feels different. What type of injury did jim likely experience?.
Answer:
cognitive or a brain injury
Explanation:
easynotecards viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections. true false
It is false that viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than a bacterial infections.
Numerous bacterial infections have been successfully treated with penicillin and other antibiotics. However, antibiotics cannot combat viruses but antivirals do. Researchers and pharmaceutical companies have struggled to find an antiviral that can treat COVID-19-causing SARS-CoV-2 since the coronavirus pandemic began.
Viruses are inert that is, they are living only if they are inside a host. Our own cells are used by viruses to reproduce. Because of this, it's hard to kill viruses without also killing our own cells. A protein coating of protection surrounds viruses; They do not have a cell wall that can be attacked by antibiotics.
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