eselson and Stahl relied on equilibrium density gradient centrifugation to resolve the DNA containing 14N from the DNA containing 15N.They started off with DNA in media containing the heavy isotope, then switched to media containing the lighter isotope and allowed DNA replication to take place. Under semiconservative model of DNA replication, after THREE rounds of replication, how many bands of DNA would you see and which band would contain more DNA molecules

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer would be - two bands ( one intermediate, and one light)- the light band contains more DNA molecules.

Explanation:

After the switching to the lighter isotope by the second round of replication where light strands are used as template strands, produces the light band of 14N.

After three rounds of semiconservative replication, where template strand contains both heavy and new formed light bands or nitrogen and produces so in a Density gradient, there will be 2 bands one light band and the other intermediate band.


Related Questions

As Maria continued to read about common conditions of the nervous system, she realized there was a category of cells called neuroglia that allowed neurons and the nervous system as a whole to properly function. Some of her symptoms seemed to fit with a condition that resulted from a slow destruction of some of these cells.
Correctly match the cell type with the sentence that describes it.
_______are the neuroglia, which help to regulate the reuptake of neurotransmitters from neural tissue.
Cell bodies of unipolar neurons are insulated from adjacent cell bodies by .
The ventricles of the brain are lined with _______, which form an epithelial layer that is permeable to cerebrospinal fluid.
The macrophages of the Central Nervous System, which function to remove foreign microorganisms, are called_______ .
The myelin sheath of the Central Nervous System is formed by________ .
Axons of unipolar neurons are insulated by_________ , which increase the speed of the electrical impulse.
Mlorogla

Answers

Answer:

Astrocytes are the neuroglia, which help to regulate the reuptake of neurotransmitters from neural tissue.

Cell bodies of unipolar neurons are insulated from adjacent cell bodies by satellite cells.

The ventricles of the brain are lined with ependymal cells, which form an epithelial layer that is permeable to cerebrospinal fluid.

The macrophages of the Central Nervous System, which function to remove foreign microorganisms, are called microglia.

The myelin sheath of the Central Nervous System is formed by oligodendrocytes.

Axons of unipolar neurons are insulated by Schwann cells, which increase the speed of the electrical impulse.  

Explanation:

The neuroglia cells are a group of specialized cells that are in the Central and Peripheral Nervous System.

Astrocytes are star-shaped cells that maintain homeostasis in the nervous tissue. They also are part of the blood-brain barrier controlling what can enter the brain and whatnot.

Satellite cells are in the Peripheric Nervous System. They are around neurons and provide nutrients and insulation to neurons.

Ependymal cells are in the Central Nervous System. They line the ventricles and spinal cord's central canal. They are the ones that help in the production and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). They are part of the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier, keeping the cerebrospinal fluid clean, and they also absorb the CSF.

The microglia are the macrophages of the Central Nervous System. They phagocytize any pathogen that they detect in the CNS, protecting the neurons.

The myelin sheath is formed by the oligodendrocytes in the CNS and by the Schwann cells in the PNS. Their function is to insulate the axons so that the electrical impulse can travel through them.

Which area of the brain is most active when listening

Answers

Answer: Right inferior frontal gyrus was also activated for both reading and listening comprehension. The common areas of activation are shown in white in Figure 1. Listening comprehension showed large clusters of activation in bilateral (posterior and anterior) superior temporal and middle temporal gyri.

Explanation:

What are the subunits used to make product in dna replication?

Answers

Answer:

DNA polymerase III is a holoenzyme, which has two core enzymes (Pol III), each consisting of three subunits (, and ), a sliding clamp that has two beta subunits, and a clamp-loading complex which has multiple subunits (, , , , and ).

Explanation:

The subunits used to make product in DNA replication are:

I. Alpha (α) subunit.

II. Delta ([tex]\delta[/tex]) subunit.

III. Epsilon ([tex]\epsilon[/tex]) subunit.

Nucleus is the most conspicuous cell organelle that is found in all eukaryotic living organisms.

Basically, the nucleus serves as the site for ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication.

DNA replication can be defined as a biological process through which two identical replicas of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules are produced from an original deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecule, especially during cellular division.

This ultimately implies that, DNA replication is a biological process that occurs during cellular division and it involves the duplication of a double-stranded DNA to produce two identical deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules.

The three (3) main subunits (polymerases) used for making products in DNA replication includes the following:

Alpha (α) subunit.Delta ([tex]\delta[/tex]) subunit.Epsilon ([tex]\epsilon[/tex]) subunit.

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Which of the following statements best describes the importance of
nutrient cycling?

Answers

Answer:

Since there are no choices to this question, I think it restores ecosystems or the organisms physical environment to a state called the "Equilibrium State".

Explanation:

The Equilibrium State keeps the ecosystems functioning. Nutrient cycles link or put the living organisms with the non living organisms together throughout the flow of the nutrients in the cycle. Remember that living and non living organisms always depend on each other.

I hope this answers your question! :)

HELP PLS (20 POINTS)

What is the basic unit of DNA?

Answers

The basic unit used to make a strand of DNA is called a nucleotide. A single basic unit or "building block" of DNA consists of a sugar , a phosphate group and a base. Sugars are rings of carbon and oxygen atoms.

Why is a ripple in a pond an example of mechanical waves?

Answers

In transverse waves, the particle movement is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Light and other types of electromagnetic radiation are examples of transverse waves. Some other examples of transverse waves include a ripple on a pond and a wave in a string.

The kinetic energy of a moving object depends on its mass and its
a. volume.
b. velocity
c. distance.
d. acceleration

Answers

Answer:

Your answer is B. Velocity

the answer is b:velocity

Can you get HIV from getting treatment at the dentist

Answers

Yes, you can.

Saliva tends to contaminate itself with blood, increasing the risk of HIV transmission from saliva.

a heavily populated town with a housing shortage is located near one large river the water in the river is not heavily polluted the people grow food on fertile farms near the river there is no access to vaccinations in the area and the death rate from certain diseases is very high based on this the most immediate solution

Answers

Answer:

Answer: access to medical supplies

Explanation:

Answer:

access to medical supplies

Explanation:

a principal origem das cartas

Answers

Im sorry i don’t understand

What are some functions of the Thalamus.​

Answers

Answer:The thalamus is a small structure within the brain located just above the brain stem between the cerebral cortex and the midbrain and has extensive nerve connections to both. The primary function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex

Explanation:

How does a hot spot make a volcano?

Answers

A hot spot is a region deep within the Earth's mantle from which heat rises through the process of convection. This heat facilitates the melting of rock. The melted rock, known as magma, often pushes through cracks in the crust to form volcanoes. ... Instead it occurs at abnormally hot centers known as mantle plumes.

Explain why the Northern Hemisphere it’s warmer in the summer than in the winter

Answers

Answer:

It is because of the axis it is on!

Explanation:

In fact, in the Northern Hemisphere, the orbit of the earth takes us further from the sun in summer. Summer is hotter than winter due to the tilt in the axis of the earth of 23 degrees. ... – the sun is higher in the sky, meaning more sunlight shines on the earth more directly.

What if earth didn't revolve around the sun, but was rather in a fixed position relative to the sun

Answers

Answer:

Anything on the trailing side would be pulverized against the Earth. It would be a horrible, gooey mess. But even if the Earth slowed gently to a stop, it would still be a horrible mess. Without the outward centripetal force to counteract the inward pull of gravity, the Earth would begin falling towards the sun.

Explanation:

HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES SEPERATE FROM EACH OTHER WHAT STAGE

Answers

Answer:

Homologous chromosomes separate from each other during anaphase I of meiosis.

Explanation:

Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms. It involves two rounds of cell division, known as meiosis I and meiosis II, which result in the formation of haploid gametes (sperm or eggs) with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material in a process called crossing over. Then, during anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate from each other and migrate to opposite poles of the cell. This is followed by telophase I, cytokinesis, and the formation of two new cells, each with a haploid set of chromosomes.

In contrast, during meiosis II, the sister chromatids of each chromosome separate from each other and migrate to opposite poles of the cell, resulting in the formation of four haploid daughter cells.

Which of the following is not considered to be a surface water?
A) aquifer
B)ponds
C)wetlands
D)river

Answers

Answer:

A) aquifer

Explanation:

surface waters are bodies of water that consist of water from rainfall etc, and aquifer does not consist of rainfall etc.

when 70.0 grams of mno2 reacted with 128.0 grams of hcl, the reaction resulted in a 62.7% yield of chlorine gas. what is the actual yield of chlorine gas in grams? Mno2 + HCI —> MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2​

Answers

Answer:

35.7 g

Explanation:

yield(%) = actual yield/theoretical yield x 100

We can calculate the theoretical yield by considering the balanced chemical equation:

MnO₂ + 4HCI —> MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂

According to the equation, 1 mol of MnO₂ reacts with 4 moles of HCl to produce 1 mol of Cl₂. So, we can write the following mole ratios:

1 mol MnO₂/4 mol HCl or 4 mol HCl/1 mol MnO₂

1 mol MnO₂/1 mol Cl₂

4 mol HCl/1 mol Cl₂

As we have the amounts of reactants in grams, we have to convert from moles to mass by using the molecular weight (MW) of each compound:

MW(MnO₂) = 54.9 g/mol Mn + (16 g/mol x 2 O) = 86.9 g/mol

1 mol MnO₂ x 86.9 g/mol = 86.9 g MnO₂

MW(HCl) = 1 g/mol H + 35.4 g/mol Cl = 36.4 g/mol

4 moles HCl x 36.4 g/mol = 145.6 g HCl

MW(Cl₂) = 2 x 35.4 g/mol Cl = 70.8 g/mol

1 mol Cl₂ x 70.8 g/mol = 70.8 g Cl₂

Now, we have to figure out which is the limiting reactant. For this, we use the stoichiometric ratio: 145.6 g HCl/86.9 g MnO₂. We multiply the actual amount of MnO₂ by the stoichiometric ratio:

70.0 g MnO₂ x 145.6 g HCl/86.9 g MnO₂ = 117.3 g HCl  < 128.0 g HCl

We need 117.3 grams of HCl to completely react with 70.0 grams of MnO₂, and we have 128 grams of HCl. So, the reactant in excess is HCl, and the limiting reactant is MnO₂.

With the limiting reactant, we calculate the theoretical yield of Cl₂. We use the stoichiometric ratio 70.8 g Cl₂/86.9 g MnO₂:

70.0 g MnO₂ x 70.8 g Cl₂/86.9 g MnO₂ = 57 g Cl₂

Finally, we calculate the actual yield of chlorine gas (Cl₂), by using the first equation:

yield(%) = actual yield/theoretical yield x 100

⇒ actual yield = theoretical yield x yield(%)/100

                       = 57 g x 62.7%/100

                       = 35.7 g


I don’t understand it

Answers

So I believe these are the questions to go with the statement based on the info given to make a question (hypothesis) , I believe it’s “A” because based on the statement it give details about the one of them being able to drink water that contains fluoride salts and the other doesn’t drink water with fluoride salt . And we don’t know where they live , or even who drinks the fluoride salts or no so “A” is a appropriate question to give . And the numerical data part can also include the people who lives in their neighborhoods .

Hope this helps☺️

Please help!! I'll give brainlist!!!​

Answers

Answer:

C. The Bluegill population would increase, but the other organisms would not be affected.

Explanation:

Bluegill are eaten by bass. Bass would be what keeps the Bluegill population under control, but with the bass population decreasing, Bluegill would eventually overpopulate.

The__system includes the kidneys

Answers

The urinary system includes the kidney.

Stion
Unit 3 Tutorials
If you ne
Question 11
Ом.
Which of these is TRUE of a neuron at resting potential?
O The neuron has more positive charges inside than outside.
O Sodium-potassium pumps transport sodium ions into the neuron.
O Sodium-potassium pumps transport potassium ions out of the neuron.
O The neuron has more potassium ions inside than outside.

Answers

Answer:

O The neuron has more potassium ions inside than outside.

Explanation:

The membrane resting potential is defined as the difference in electrical charge between the interior of neurons and their outer environment. In neurons, both sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) pumps contribute to generating the resting potential. Neurons have a higher concentration of K+ inside than outside and a higher concentration of Na+ outside than inside. When a neuron is at its rest state, where the inside is negative with respect to the outside, its membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+, and therefore the resting membrane potential is closer to the equilibrium potential of K+.

Consider the Canyonlands food web. Evaluate each of the statements provided and select ALL that apply.

A)

The Fennec Fox is an omnivore.

B)

The Northern Whiptail is a carnivore.

Rock squirrels are the only consumers of Yucca.

D)

Producers include Utah Juniper, Yucca, and Pinyon Pine

E)

The Rock Squirrel, Spiny Lizard, and Fennec Fox are all primary consumers.

Answers

Answer:

A) The fennec Fox is an omnivore.

E) The rock squirrel, spiny lizard and fennec fox are all primary consumers.

Explanation:

Fennec fox is omnivore and they usually live in underground holes. They dig the holes with the help of their feet. They usually consume insects, some plants, eggs and small animals.

Answer:

A) The Fennec Fox is an omnivore.

C) Rock squirrels are the only consumers of Yucca.

D) Producers include Utah Juniper, Yucca, and Pinyon Pine

Explanation:

Using the food web, we do not have any information on what the Northern Whiptail and the Spiny Lizard eat.

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A 66-year-old man has difficulty controlling voluntary movements. He can clearly state what he intends to do, describe how he would do it, and initiate or stop the movement. However, he has poor coordination and often misses his target. If his difficulty arises from a defect in one particular area of the central nervous system, which area is most likely to be involved

Answers

Answer:

Cerebrum

Explanation:

Cerebrum is the part of central nervous system that is responsible for the voluntary movement. If there is poor coordination between cerebrum and the muscles so the person has difficulty in controlling his voluntary actions or movement. Somatic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system responsible for the voluntary movements of body parts through the use of skeletal muscles so we can say that both cerebrum and somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary actions.

Even though chestnuts can regrow from their roots, this does not usually happen because
there are few root systems left in the forest.
chestnuts grow in regions prone to fires.
most forestry professionals no longer want to grow chestnuts.
new growth is stricken with the blight before it has the chance to mature.

Answers

Answer: New growth is stricken with the blight before it has the chance to mature.

Explanation:

American Chestnut trees can indeed regrow from their roots but due to the devastating effect of the chestnut blight, they have been unable to do this since the blight spread across the country.

The blight was introduced when Chinese chestnut trees were imported into the U.S. in the 20th century. It killed off most of the chestnut trees in the U.S. and attacks the tree again when it grows to around 6 meters bringing it down to its roots. This is why the American Chestnut is considered endangered.

Answer:

d

Explanation:

took the test

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

A. the recovery of Yellowstone National Park following the fires of 1988

B. the appearance of lichens and mosses in an area where a glacier has recently melted away

C. the growth of weeds in a field after a farmer stops using the field

D. the growth of weeds in an empty lot that is no longer being mowed

Answers

Answer:

B. the appearance of lichens and mosses in an area where a glacier has recently melted away

Explanation:

Ecological succession, which refers to the series of changes that occurs over time in an ecosystem, can be of two types namely: primary succession and secondary succession.

Primary succession is a succession that involves an area where no form of life has grown previously, hence, the area of land is barren e.g bare rock. Primary succession is first colonized by species called PIONEER SPECIES e.g. lichens, mosses etc.

According to this question, "the appearance of lichens and mosses (pioneer species) in an area where a glacier has recently melted away" is an example of PRIMARY SUCCESSION.

explain in detail how do carnivores get their food?

Answers

Answer:

a carnivore gets their food by killing other animals, they eat meat. a carnivore can eat an animal who is a herbivore and sometimes a omnivore.

One of the genes coding for the ability to taste PTC shows Mendelian inheritance. For this example, we will call the allele for tasting T and it is dominant over the allele for non-tasting (t). Suppose a non-taster man, whose mother and father were tasters, married a taster woman whose mother was a non-taster. They have a child who is a non-taster. What is the phenotype g

Answers

Complete question:

One of the genes coding for the ability to taste PTC shows Mendelian inheritance. For this example, we will call the allele for tasting T and it is dominant over the allele for non-tasting (t). Suppose a non-taster man, whose mother and father were tasters, married a taster woman whose mother was a non-taster. They have a child who is a non-taster. What is the phenotype and genotype of the woman's father?

Answer and  Explanation:

Due to technical problems, you will find the complete answer and explanation in the attached files.

A student completes an SAE where they volunteer time taking care of animals at an animal shelter. What type of Immersion SAE would this be?

Answers

Explanation:

probably, Placement, since he's volunteering

The type of the Immersion SAE would be experimental research. The correct option is C.

What is Immersion SAE?

Immersion SAEs are an extension of the Foundational SAE's Agricultural Literacy component and will contribute to a student's growth in all Foundational components in an authentic, contextualized manner.

In a real-world application, the five Immersion SAE categories build on the Foundational SAE components.

SAE programs serve several important purposes and provide numerous benefits, including:

Assisting students in clearing career as well as educational decisions. Allowing students to investigate various agricultural subjects.Assisting students in developing self-confidence.

The Immersion SAE would be an experimental study. The majority of SAE programs are completed outside of regular class time, either at home or at work.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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In humans, nearly 80% of proteins are acetylated on their N-terminal residue, a modification known to be recognized by a specific E3 enzyme, which directs the ubiquitylation of the protein for rapid degradation. Does this mean that all of these proteins would be actively degraded at the same time

Answers

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Yes this means that all of these proteins will be actively degraded and this is due to the high turnover rate which will ensure that their activity will be under tight control.

The acetylation of the N-terminal of the protein, with the Ubiquitylation of the protein by an E3 enzyme, helps in the maintenance of the homeostasis of protein activity.

(S)-Zearalenone, a natural product isolated from the fungus Gibberella zeae, exhibits useful biological activity, including antibiotic properties. In a total synthesis of (S)-zearalenone, an intramolecular Stille coupling process was employed as the penultimate procedure.3 The resulting coupling product was then treated with HCl to cleave the OR groups, thereby converting them into OH groups (as seen in Section 13.6), giving (S)-zearalenone. Draw the structure of (S)-zearalenone:

Answers

Answer:

Hello attached below is the missing information  and solution

Explanation:

Attached below is the structure of ( S ) - Zearalenone as required by the question.

Zearalenone is a  estrogenic mycotoxins that is produced by Fusarium fungi

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the case of the missing teenagers who were located by the police using locational data from their mobile devices is an example of: group of answer choices how technology can hinder an investigation. the benefits and drawbacks of technology. the way mobile devices transmit data invisibly. why parents place limits on mobile phone use. Consider IP address X: 193.101.50.44/26 a) Which of the IP addresses below is on the same network as X: (b) With subnet mask 255.255.255. 192, what is the maximum number of hosts on the subnet? in a windows environment what command would you use to find how many hops are required If a hydrogen atom has its electron in the n = 2 state, how much energy, in electronvolts, is needed to ionize it? Conway Company purchased merchandise inventory with an invoice price of $12,000 and credit terms of 2/10, n/30. What is the net cost of the goods if Conway Company pays within the discount period?Select one:a. $12,000b. $11,760c. $10,800d. $11,040 4x < 13 solving and graphing inequalities the enzyme that converts retinol to retinal and ethanol to acetylaldehyde contains four ____ atoms. The number of his to a website follows a Poisson process. Hits occur at the rate of 3.5 per minute between 7:00 P.M. and 10:00 PM Given below are three scenarios for the numb between 8:43 PM, and 8:47 PM. Interpret each result (a) exactly seven (b) fewer than seven (c) at least seven hits) (a) P(7)=0 (Round to four decimal places as needed.) On about of every 100 time Intervis between 843 PM, and 8:47 PM, the website will receive (Round to the nearest whole number as needed.) (6) P(x7)-0 (Round to four decimal places as needed) On about of every 100 time intervals between B:43 PM and 8:47 PM, the website will rective (Round to the nearest whole number as needed.) (c) PLX27)- (Round to four decimal places as needed.) On about of every 100 time intervals between 8.43 PM and 8:47 PM, the website will receive (Round to the nearest whole number as needed) hito) hits) A fixed pattern of long and short notes that is repeated or varied is known asgroup of answer choicesa cantus firmus.organum.a rhythmic mode.a melisma. You would like to have $20,000 to use a down payment for a home in five years by making regular, end-of-month deposits into an annuity that pays 6% interest compounded monthly.How much should you deposit each month?Round your answer to the nearest cent. Do not include the dollar sign in the answer box below. After admitting Ms. Jones, the nurse calls the provider. What data would the nurse include in the situation-background-assessment-recommendation (SBAR) communications? (Select all that apply.)a) Clonus 1+b) Mother thinks her daughter is having a heart attackc) Patient is scaredd) Coarse crackles in lungse) Severe headachef) RUQ pain Eaton Products seeks to select the minimum total cost vendor for a product for any order quantity. Each of the four product vendors has an associated fixed order cost along with a per unit product cost. Data are provided in the workbook accompanying this quiz. A possible formula for the total cost for vendor AAA in cell D4 would be:=B4*B9+C4=B4+C4*B9=B4+C4*C9=B4+C4*$B$9None of these answers are correct.Exactly two of the above answers are correct. Complete and balance the following half-reaction in acidic solution TiO2 (s) Ti?- (aq) 4. 03-02-0 O O2 O3+ 4+ 1 1 2. 3 4. 5 6 7 8 9 0 0 02 1. O 16 I 0, 0. + (s) (0) (g) (aq) e- H H OH H30- H2O Ti If |A| = 96, |B| = 57, |C| = 62, |AN B| = 8, |AN C=17, IBN C=15 and nd |AnBnC| = AUBUC? = 4 What is Help Sove 1 A company is planning to purchase a machine that will cost $53,172, have a six-year Iife, and will have no salvage value. The company expects to sell the machine's output of 3,000 units ev A nurse manager at a clinic is reviewing the preventative services offered to clients. Which of the following activities should the nurse identify as a secondary preventative activity?a. Advocate for laws that prohibit texting while driving.b. Refer a client who is recovering from substance use disorder to a social service program.c. Provide a smoking cessation class.d. Encourage a pregnant client to participate in prenatal care. Solve the problem. Round dollars to the nearest cent and rates to the nearest tenth of a percent. The amount of markup on a store item is $10. Find the cost to the store if the markup is 20%. A. $8.33 B. $50.00 C. $12.00 D. $2.00 Solve the problem. Round dollars to the nearest cent and rates to the nearest tenth of a percent. Find the selling price of an item which cost a store $124. The store has a 30% markup. A. $161.20 B. $413.34 C. $95.39 D. $37.20 based on the same g(x) given before, what is the original message m if we have a codeword 1011101 at receiver side. Lance runs a bicycle repair shop. His assistant demanded and received a wage raise. In response, Lance's supply of repair services decreases because certificate revocation trees are based on what form of hash trees?