can someone please help!! 30 POINTS!!

Answer:

About 0.588.

Step-by-step explanation:

20 divided by 34 is 0.58823529411.

This rounds to 0.588.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Probability [Ticket drawn at random, has a multiple of 4] = 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Total number of tickets = 20

Multiple of 4 = 4 , 8 , 12 , 16 , 20

Total number of Multiple of 4 = 5

Find:

Probability [Ticket drawn at random, has a multiple of 4]

Computation:

Probability of en event = Number of favourable outcome / Total number of outcomes

Probability [Ticket drawn at random, has a multiple of 4] = Total number of Multiple of 4 / Total number of tickets

Probability [Ticket drawn at random, has a multiple of 4] = 5 / 20

Probability [Ticket drawn at random, has a multiple of 4] = 1/4

Answer:

16y-6

Step-by-step explanation:

(3y-4)(2y+7)+11y-9

5y+3+11y-9

16y-6

Answer: D.   6y^2  +  24y  -  37

Step-by-step explanation:

i would but a homie is running on a flip phone hehe

jus use the distributive thing

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

True

Both slopes have to be negative reciprocals for the two lines to be perpendicular.

Hope this Helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:Let's solve for c.

x2+10x+c=−3+c

Step 1: Add -c to both sides.

x2+c+10x+−c=c−3+−c

x2+10x=−3

Step 2: Add -x^2 to both sides.

x2+10x+−x2=−3+−x2

10x=−x2−3

Step 3: Add -10x to both sides.

10x+−10x=−x2−3+−10x

0=−x2−10x−3

Step 4: Divide both sides by 0.

0

0

=

−x2−10x−3

0

c=

−x2−10x−3

0

Answer:

c=

−x2−10x−3/0

hope it helps :D

Answer:The ball dropped 56 feet after 3 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=-2/3x+24

Step-by-step explanation:

Move the 6x to the other side. Then divide both sides by 9.

Answer:

-2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

that is the procedure above

slope me taking the co-effecient of x afternoon making y the subject of the equation

the co-effient of x is -2/3. which is equal to the gradient or slope

Answer:

slope = - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 2, 5) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (3, - 5)

m = [tex]\frac{-5-5}{3-(-2)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-10}{3+2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-10}{5}[/tex] = - 2

Answer:

Horizontal

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6 inches wide, 10 inches long

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to double 3 since 5 is doubled to 10. 3 doubled is 6.

Answer:

6in wide and 10in long

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to get the picture to be 10in long you need to multiply the 5in by 2, which now means you need to also multiply the 3in by 2.

Answer:

The answer is A)9.89cm squared

Step-by-step explanation:

Split the shape into a triangle and a square. The square's area is 2.6 × 2.3 which equals 5.98. The triangle's area is 6-2.6=3.4, 3.4×2.3= 7.82. But since its a triangle, divide it by two. 7.82÷2=3.91. Now add both of the found areas to eachother, 3.91+5.98=9.98 cm squared. Hope that makes sense and helps!

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

my brother told me....

Answer:

[tex]h^-^1(x)=0.5x+1.5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Finding the inverse of a function is similar to solving for the complete opposite of a function. An easy trick to do so is the think of the resulting value (h(x)) as another variable. Solve the equation for (x) in terms of (h(x)). Finally, switch the variable and evalutator so that one has the funciton in inverse function notation.

[tex]h(x) = 2x - \frac{4}{3}[/tex]

Inverse operations,

[tex]h(x)=2x-\frac{4}{3}\\\\h(x)+\frac{4}{3}=2x\\\\\frac{h(x)+\frac{3}{4}}{2}=x[/tex]

Simplify,

[tex]0.5(h(x))+1.5=x[/tex]

Write in inverse function notation,

[tex]h^-^1(x)=0.5x+1.5[/tex]

Answer:

the pattern is 4, 13, 4, 13. I dont know what the answer choices are, but the first 4 legths put together are 34 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

look above, hope this helps...

brainliest...

Answer:

The order of the first four strings is 1: 4in 2: 13in 3: 40in 4: 121in

Answer:

a) there are 6 possible outcomes. b) the probability of getting 3 heads would be 3/6. c) the probability of getting 1 head is 1/6.

Answer

8,98

Step-by-step explanation:

the minimum amount of weight you can use is the barbell alone which is 8lbs by itself and the maximum is 98 because there are 6 15lb plates which equal to 90lb total and when you add the 6 plates to the barbell you get 98lbs

Answer:

Sorry I had to go to dinner here you go hope this helps! :D

Step-by-step explanation:

So, before we start, there are two things we have to go over.

First off, we have "or"

When using or between two probabilitess, you are basically adding them together.

For instance, you first question asks what the probability is of rolling a 5 or a number greater than 3(assuming this is a 6 sided dice).

So, rolling a 5 is a change of 1/6. Since 1 of the 6 dice iwll be 5. The other probability is a 1/2, since 3 of the 6 dice are over 3.

Now lets add these two together because of the "or":

1/2+1/6=3/6+1/6=4/6

So the probabily of rolling a 5 OR rolling a number greater than 3 is 4/6.

This is inclusive, since rolling a 5 is possible and greater than 3.

Now "and" is a bit different and more complex than or is.

Here is an example:

What is the change of rolling a even number or rolling a number above 4?

Well, rolling a even number has a probability of 1/2. Rolling a number above 4 is 1/3.

To find the "and", we multiply the two probabilities.

So 1/3*1/2=1/6

So the probability of rolling a even number and a number above 4 is 1/6.

Now, lets get back to the answers.

So what is the probability of rolling a 2 or a 6?

There is a 1/6 probability to get a 2, and a 1/6 probability to get a 6.

Add it together since they use or:

1/6+1/6=2/6

So the probability of rolling a 2 or a 6 is 2/6, or 1/3.

This is exlusive since you cant roll both a 6 and a 2 at the same time.

Next we have what the probability is of drawing a 6 or a king.

There are 13 different cards in a deck.

There is a 4/52 chance of drawing a 6(spade/heart/etc), and a 4/52 chance of drawing a king. This simplyfies to 1/13 for each.

This is:

1/13+1/13=2/13

So the probability of drawing a 6 or a king is 2/13

This is a exclusive event since a king and 6 cant be drawn at the same time.

Finally, we have:

What is the probability of drawing a queen or a spade?

Again, there is a 4/52 chance of drawing a queen. A spade, however, is different.

13 of the 52 cards can be spades, which simplies to 1/4.

So we have 1/13+1/4=4/52+13/52=17/52

So there is a 17/52 probability of drawing a queen or spade.

This is a inclusive event since it is possible to draw both a spade and queen at the same time.

Hope this answers all your questions and helps you understand what "and" "or" are in probability.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Ahh

Answer:

A. 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

You can find the center value (median) either by crossing off a box from the lower number end and one off the higher number end until you find the middle value, or by writing them out and doing the same.

2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

Since there are 20 numbers, there are two center numbers, 4 and 5. So we take the average of them, which is 4.5

Answer:

155.56 m

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagoras theorem : a² + b² = c²

where a = length

b = base

c =  hypotenuse

√110² + 110²

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

Reduced cost=(4/5)*original price

Original price=48*(5/4)=60

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the given equation is in the form of quadratic formula i.e.ax^2+bx+c=0.

So ,here a=-1 ,b=-6 and c=-9

b^2=(-6)^2

=36

4ac=4*(-1)*(-9)

=4*9

=36

b^2-4ac=36-36

=0

number of solutions =1

Hope this helps u !!

Answer:

use substitution

(5 x 7) - (3 x 8) + 11= 35 - 24 + 11= 22

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

on edge

Answer:

D

(0, 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

1) the area of the given circle is: A=π*r²=256π (in²).

2) the part of the shaded sector is 110/360=11/36, it means that the required area of the shaded sector is: 11/36 * A = 256* π * 11 / 36≈246 (in²).

Answer:

[tex]4,060[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\binom{30}{3}=\boxed{4060}[/tex]

There are 30 teachers for the principal to choose from initially. After the principal chooses one, there will be 29, 28, 27, and so on.

Since the principal is only choosing 3, there are [tex]30\cdot 29\cdot 28=24,360[/tex] permutations. However, the order of which the principal chooses the teachers does not matter. In other words, without loss of generality, let the name of three of the teachers be Adam, Bernie, and Carla. Regardless of whether the principal chooses Adam then Bernie then Carla or Carla then Adam then Bernie, etcetera, the same three teachers are still being chosen.

Thus, we must divide by the number of ways you can rearrange three distinct teachers, which is [tex]3![/tex].

Therefore, the desired answer is [tex]\frac{24360}{3!}=\frac{24360}{6}=\boxed{4,060}[/tex]

Answer:

Option C is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 = 48[/tex]

[tex]6 \times 8 = 48[/tex]