To minimize inventory while satisfying demand, C&A should produce 50 pounds of wheat bread with each batch.
What is inventory reduction?Inventory reduction is the process of reducing inventory to meet customer demand. With that being said, it’s important to remember that this isn’t just moving excess inventory.
It also means preventing excess inventory in the first place while simultaneously increasing inventory of better-selling SKUs.
For example; when the top floor sends word that you need to reduce inventory levels, you don’t just cut your inventory indiscriminately.
For the question above, wheat bread has the highest demand at 50 pounds per hour, and the production rate for all three types of bread is the same at 200 pounds per hour.
Additionally, the changeover time for wheat bread is the longest at 60 minutes, so it is most efficient to produce a full batch of wheat bread before switching to another type of bread.
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Two Different Products. Which Costing Method (Job-Order Or Process) Would Be The Best Method To Use For Each Project? I. Fred Puetz Manufactures Fred's Wine Cooler. Fred Once Made The Statement, "People Can Have Any Flavor Of Fred's Wine Cooler They Want As Long It's Boysenberry." II. Ahmad
The following examples briefly describe the manufacture of two different products. Which costing method (job-order or process) would be the best method to use for each project?
I. Fred Puetz manufactures Fred's Wine Cooler. Fred once made the statement, "People can have any flavor of Fred's Wine Cooler they want as long it's boysenberry."
II. Ahmad Aerondonetics is manufacturing three space shuttles for the country of Kricherra. Each shuttle is slightly different and production will last approximately two years.
I II
a. Process Process
b. Job-order Job-Order
c. Process Job-Order
d. Job-Order Process
The most noticeable difference from a consumer standpoint is that thermoelectric (aka Peltier) coolers are cheap and silent or nearly silent, often with just quite large fan to spread the heat out. Compressors, on the other hand, have traditionally been quite loud, and get louder as they age (though recent improvements have made compressors much quieter), and the bulk and larger number of moving parts makes them more prone to failure. Thermoelectric is capable of maintaining a very constant local temperature, much like actual cellaring, whereas compressors cycle on and off and therefore temps rise and fall several degrees in either direction all the time.
Which is the best project?
I. Job-Order - Since Fred's Wine Cooler only comes in one flavor (boysenberry), it would be more appropriate to use job-order costing method as the production process would be specific to that particular product.
II. Process - Since Ahmad is manufacturing three different space shuttles, each slightly different from the other, it would be more appropriate to use the process costing method. This method would allow for the cost to be accumulated for each process and then divided by the total number of units produced.
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A best seller titled Retire Rich convinces the public to increase the percentage of its income devoted to saving. Increase Decrease - consumption - income- interest rate - investment
A best seller titled "Retire Rich" convinces the public to increase the percentage of its income devoted to saving. This decision by the public has several economic implications.
Firstly, as people allocate a higher percentage of their income to savings, consumption will decrease. This is because individuals now have less disposable income to spend on goods and services.
Secondly, the overall income level in the economy may also be affected. With decreased consumption, businesses may experience lower revenues and potentially reduced profits. This could lead to a slowdown in economic growth and may impact income levels.
Thirdly, as more people save, the supply of loanable funds in the market will increase. This excess supply of funds may result in a decrease in the interest rate, making borrowing cheaper for both individuals and businesses.
Lastly, a decrease in interest rates can encourage investment. As the cost of borrowing decreases, businesses may be more inclined to take on loans for expansion and capital improvements. This could lead to increased investment in the economy.
In conclusion, the best seller "Retire Rich" convinces the public to increase the percentage of its income devoted to saving, which may lead to decreased consumption, potential changes in income levels, a decrease in interest rates, and an increase in investment.
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Powell Company had income of $1.158.300 under variable costing Beginning and ending finished goods inventories were 7800 units and zero unlts. respectively, Fred overhead cost was 54 per unit for the beginning finished goods inventory. Income under absorption costing is Multiple Choice $158300 $4155.900 $1150.700 $51327100 $188700
Negative income is not possible, so the income under absorption costing would be $1,158,300 + $421,200 = $1,579,500.
Therefore, the correct answer is $1150.700.
The answer is $1150.700.
Variable costing is a method of cost accounting that includes only variable costs in product costs, while fixed costs are treated as period expenses. On the other hand, absorption costing is a method of cost accounting that includes both variable and fixed costs in product costs.
In the given question, the income under variable costing is $1.158.300, which means that this amount only includes variable costs. The beginning finished goods inventory had 7800 units, and the fixed overhead cost was $54 per unit. Therefore, the total fixed overhead cost for the beginning finished goods inventory was $421,200 (7800 units x $54). This cost is a fixed cost and is not included in the variable costing income.
To calculate the income under absorption costing, we need to include the fixed overhead cost in the product cost. The total cost of the beginning finished goods inventory under absorption costing would be $1,579,500 ($421,200 fixed overhead cost + $1,158,300 variable cost). Since there were no ending finished goods inventories, the cost of goods sold would be equal to the cost of the beginning finished goods inventory. Therefore, the income under absorption costing would be $1,158,300 - $1,579,500 = -$421,200. However, negative income is not possible, so the income under absorption costing would be $1,158,300 + $421,200 = $1,579,500.
Therefore, the correct answer is $1150.700.here
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the ________ act is the most relevant piece of hr legislation for addressing doubled overtime rates and out-of-sequence production practices in boeing’s facilities.
B. Sarbanes- Oxley Act- is the most relevant piece of HR legislation for addressing doubled overtime rates and out-of-sequence production practices in Boeing’s facilities.
What is the purpose of Sarbanes-Oxley Act?The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, a piece of federal legislation, created stringent financial and auditing standards for publicly traded firms.
The Act was designed by lawmakers to assist shield the public from accounting fraud and financial misdeeds and to aid shareholders, employees, and the general public.
Hence, the Sarbanes- Oxley act is the most pertinent component of HR law for tackling high overtime rates and out-of-sequence production techniques in Boeing's plants.
Therefore, option B. is the right choice.
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Complete question is-
The ________ act is the most relevant piece of hr legislation for addressing doubled overtime rates and out-of-sequence production practices in Boeing’s facilities.
A. Civil Rights Act,
B. Sarbanes- Oxley Act
C. Consolidated Omnibus Reconciliation
D. Occupational Safety and Health.
A decrease in the quantity demanded of a product is the result of a change in: a fall in the price of the product. a fall in the demand for the product. a rise in the price of the product. a decrease in consumer incomes.
A decrease in the quantity demanded of a product is the result of a change in a fall in the demand for the product.
A decrease in the quantity demanded of a product is the result of a change in a fall in the demand for the product. While a fall in the price of the product may result in an increase in the quantity demanded, a decrease in the quantity demanded suggests that there has been a shift in the demand curve. This could be due to factors such as changes in consumer preferences, substitutes becoming more attractive, or a decrease in consumer incomes, all of which result in a decrease in demand for the product.
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Garden, Inc. a qualifying 501c3 organization, incurs lobbying expenditures of $210,000 during the taxable year. Exempt purpose expenditures are $900,000. If Garden makes the election under section 501h to make lobbying expenditues on a limited basis, its tax liability resulting from the lobbying expenditure is:A. $0B. $12,500C. $50,000D.$60,000
The minimum tax liability for organizations that make the Section 501h election is $500, so the tax liability is $12,500. The correct answer is B. $12,500.
When a qualifying 501c3 organization incurs lobbying expenditures, it must file Form 990-T and pay taxes on the amount of those expenditures that exceed the lobbying expenditure ceiling amount.
The lobbying expenditure ceiling amount is calculated based on the organization's exempt purpose expenditures. For Garden, Inc., the lobbying expenditure ceiling amount is $450,000 (which is 5% of its exempt purpose expenditures of $900,000).
Since Garden incurred lobbying expenditures of $210,000, which is less than the lobbying expenditure ceiling amount of $450,000, it can make the election under section 501h to make lobbying expenditures on a limited basis.
If Garden makes this election, its tax liability resulting from the lobbying expenditure would be 5.0% of the excess lobbying expenditures over the lobbying expenditure ceiling amount.
In this case, the excess lobbying expenditure is $210,000 - $450,000 = -$240,000 (which is negative because the lobbying expenditure is less than the lobbying expenditure ceiling amount).
Therefore, the tax liability is 5.0% of -$240,000, which is -$12,000. However, the minimum tax liability for organizations that make the Section 501h election is $500, so the tax liability is $500 - (-$12,000) = $12,500.
Therefore, the correct option is B. $12,500.
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Below is the simplified balance sheet of Gorgonzolan commercial banks at some point in time Assets Liabilities
Currency ( reserves) 200,000 Deposits 600,000 Loans 400,000 Assume that the Gorgonzolan commercial banks desire to hold reserves of 25 percent of deposits and that the public holds no currency long term. Instructions: Enter your responses as whole numbers. a. Given the data in the balance sheet, the Gorgonzolag commercial banks want to hold b. The Gorgonzolan commercial banks currently have in reserves. in extra reserves that they would like to lend out.
c. assuming that no additional reserves enter the Sorgonzolan banking system, the final values of bank reserves, loans, and deposits are: Final consolidated balance sheet Assets Liabilities Currency Final value of bank ___ Deposits ___
reserves
Loans ___
Bank reserves are the sums of money that a nation's central bank mandates that banks keep in reserve. These reserves are normally kept as cash in the bank's vaults or as deposits with the central bank.
The goal of bank reserves is to guarantee that banks have enough money to fulfil their obligations and keep the banking system stable.
Reserves assist banks in managing their ongoing liquidity requirements. Banks can use them as a reserve of funds to cover consumer withdrawals or payment commitments.
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a bequest value is a type of _________________ value. group of answer choices non-use option use moral
A bequest value is a type of non-use value. Option A is answer.
Non-use values are values that are not derived from direct use or consumption of a good or service. Bequest value, along with existence value and option value, are subcategories of non-use values.
Bequest value refers to the value that people place on the knowledge that a resource or environmental amenity will be preserved for future generations. It is the value that people derive from the ability to pass on the resource or amenity to their heirs or future generations.
For example, someone may place a high value on preserving a national park or wildlife refuge for their children and grandchildren to enjoy in the future, even if they themselves never visit the park or use it directly.
Option A is answer.
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the strategic importance of deliberately trying to develop organizational competencies and capabilities is
Developing organizational competencies and capabilities is critical for creating a sustainable competitive advantage, adapting to changing market conditions, and improving operational efficiency and effectiveness.
Organizations that invest in developing their competencies and capabilities can position themselves for long-term success in a rapidly changing business landscape.
There are several strategic reasons why organizations should deliberately try to develop their competencies and capabilities. First, they allow organizations to differentiate themselves from their competitors.
Second, developing competencies and capabilities can help organizations adapt to changing market conditions. Third, developing competencies and capabilities can improve operational efficiency and effectiveness.
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Gearty's adjusted basis in Worthington Company, a partnership, was $18,000 at the time Gearty received the following proportionate nonliquidating distributions of partnership property:
Cash $6,000
Land Adjusted basis 14,000
Fair market value 12,000
Inventory Adjusted basis 7,000
Fair market value 10,000
What is Gearty's tax basis in the land received from the partnership?
a.$0
b.$5,000
c.$12,000
d.$14,000
Since this is a nonliquidating distribution, the loss cannot be recognized until Gearty disposes of their partnership interest.
Gearty's tax basis in the land received from the partnership is $0.
Explanation:
According to the information provided, Gearty received a proportionate nonliquidating distribution of partnership property, which means the partnership did not liquidate or terminate. Gearty's adjusted basis in the partnership was $18,000, and the total value of the distributions received was $28,000 ($6,000 cash + $12,000 land FMV + $10,000 inventory FMV).
To determine Gearty's tax basis in the land, we need to compare its adjusted basis with its fair market value at the time of distribution. The land's adjusted basis was $14,000, which is greater than its fair market value of $12,000. Therefore, Gearty must use the fair market value of the land as their basis, which is $12,000.
Since the fair market value of the land is less than Gearty's adjusted basis in the partnership, Gearty will have a capital loss of $2,000 ($14,000 - $12,000) on the distribution of the land. However, since this is a nonliquidating distribution, the loss cannot be recognized until Gearty disposes of their partnership interest.
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1. Pertaining to cash dividends, on which date is retained earnings decreased and liabilities increased? a. date of declaration. b. ex-dividend date. c. date of record. d. date of payment.
Pertaining to cash dividends, retained earnings are decreased and liabilities are increased on the date of declaration. The correct option is (a).
1. The board of directors declares a cash dividend on the declaration date. This is when the decision to distribute a dividend to shareholders is made.
2. On the declaration date, the company's retained earnings account is decreased by the total amount of the declared dividend. This is because the company is setting aside a portion of its profits to be distributed to shareholders.
3. Simultaneously, a liability is created in the form of dividends payable, which represents the company's obligation to pay the declared dividends to its shareholders. This increases the company's liabilities.
4. The ex-dividend date, date of record, and date of payment are important dates in the dividend process, but they do not affect retained earnings or liabilities directly. The ex-dividend date determines when a stock begins trading without the dividend; the date of record identifies the shareholders eligible to receive the dividend, and the date of payment is when the dividend is actually paid to shareholders.In summary, the date of declaration is when retained earnings are decreased and liabilities are increased due to cash dividends.
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Windsor, Inc. returned $160 of goods originally purchased on credit from Flint Industries. Using the periodic Inventory approach, Windsor would record this transaction as: O Purchase Returns and Allowances 160 Accounts Payable 160 O Accounts Payable 160 Inventory Inventory 160 O Accounts Payable 160 Accounts Payable 160 O Purchase Returns 160 Allowances 160
Using the periodic inventory approach, Windsor, Inc. would record the transaction of returning $160 of goods originally purchased on credit from Flint Industries as Purchase Returns and Allowances 160 and Accounts Payable 160.
Under the periodic inventory approach, the inventory is not updated continuously. Instead, the cost of goods sold is determined at the end of the accounting period by taking the beginning inventory, adding purchases, and then subtracting the ending inventory.
When a company returns goods purchased on credit, it must record the transaction to account for the change in accounts payable and inventory. In this case, Windsor, Inc. would record the transaction as a Purchase Returns and Allowances account with a credit of $160 and a corresponding debit of $160 to Accounts Payable.
This entry reflects the decrease in the amount owed to Flint Industries (Accounts Payable) and the decrease in inventory as the returned goods are no longer available for sale.
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Reply as to whether each of the following comments relating to the confirmation of accounts receivable during a financial statement audit is correct or incorrect. 1. Confirmation requests should be mailed by the client under the careful supervision of the CPAs. 2. Only material accounts need be confirmed. 3. Overall, positive confirmation requests are ordinarily considered to result in more reliable evidence than negative requests. 4. A combination of positive and negative requests may be used. 5. Confirmations address completeness more than they address existence. 6. Second requests are more frequently used for negative confirmation requests than for positive confirmation requests. 7. Since they represent evidence obtained from an external source, confirmation replies from customers are considered to provide more reliable information than the client's records and accepted as the proper audited balance. 8. Confirmation replies should be addressed directly to the CPAs at the client's address. 9. If the misstatements identified by the confirmation process are in total immaterial, the auditors may still conclude that the account is materially overstated. 10. Test of control results may result in the need to confirm fewer accounts. 11. Confirmation of accounts receivables may be omitted in certain circumstances. 12. Depending upon the circumstances, auditors may confirm total balances due or individual portions of those balances.
The client should be responsible for mailing confirmation requests, but under the careful supervision of the CPAs to ensure they are sent to the correct parties and not tampered with.
All accounts should be considered for confirmation, regardless of materiality, as there may be errors or fraud in any account.
Positive confirmations are generally considered more reliable evidence as they require a response, while negative confirmations do not guarantee that the recipient received or read the request.
A combination of positive and negative confirmations can be used to reduce the risk of fraud or errors and increase the likelihood of a response.
Confirmations primarily address existence, not completeness. They confirm whether a recorded receivable actually exists and is owed to the company.
Second requests are typically used for positive confirmations, as they are more likely to result in a response and provide more reliable evidence.
Confirmation replies from customers are considered more reliable evidence than the client's records, as they are obtained from an external source.
Confiration replies should be addressed directly to the auditors, not the client, to ensure their independence and reliability.
Even if the misstatements identified by the confirmation process are immaterial, they may still indicate a systematic problem with the client's internal controls or financial reporting.
Test of control results may not reduce the need for confirmation of accounts receivable, as the two tests address different aspects of the audit
Confirmation of accounts receivable may be omitted in certain circumstances, such as when the accounts are immaterial, or when alternative procedures provide sufficient evidence.
Depending on the circumstances, auditors may choose to confirm total balances due or individual portions of those balances, depending on the level of risk and the availability of information.
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The general purpose of the CAPM is to try and equate a stock's beta to its perceived level of risk. (TRUE of FALSE)
True, the general purpose of the CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) is to try and equate a stock's beta to its perceived level of risk.
It helps determine the expected return on an investment, considering the risk-free rate, the stock's beta, and the expected market return.
The CAPM is used to estimate the expected return of an investment, particularly in the context of portfolio management and investment decision-making. It is based on the notion that investors require a certain level of return for taking on additional risk associated with an investment. The model incorporates three key components:
Risk-Free Rate: The CAPM assumes that there is a risk-free rate of return, typically represented by a short-term government bond rate, which represents the return that an investor can earn with zero risk. This rate is used as a baseline against which the expected return of a risky asset, such as a stock, is compared.
Beta: The beta is a measure of a stock's systematic risk, which reflects the sensitivity of the stock's returns to changes in the overall market. A stock with a beta of 1 is expected to move in line with the overall market, while a stock with a beta greater than 1 is expected to be more volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta less than 1 is expected to be less volatile than the market.
The CAPM uses beta as a measure of a stock's risk relative to the overall market, with the assumption that higher beta stocks are riskier and should therefore command a higher expected return.
Expected Market Return: The CAPM also takes into account the expected return of the overall market. This can be estimated based on historical market performance, market forecasts, or other relevant market data. The expected market return represents the average return that investors expect to earn from the overall market.
By combining these three components, the CAPM helps in estimating the expected return of a stock or portfolio by equating its risk (measured by beta) to the expected market return and the risk-free rate. The formula for the CAPM is typically represented as follows:
Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta × (Expected Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)
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True, the general purpose of the CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) is to try and equate a stock's beta to its perceived level of risk.
It helps determine the expected return on an investment, considering the risk-free rate, the stock's beta, and the expected market return.
The CAPM is used to estimate the expected return of an investment, particularly in the context of portfolio management and investment decision-making. It is based on the notion that investors require a certain level of return for taking on additional risk associated with an investment. The model incorporates three key components:
Risk-Free Rate: The CAPM assumes that there is a risk-free rate of return, typically represented by a short-term government bond rate, which represents the return that an investor can earn with zero risk. This rate is used as a baseline against which the expected return of a risky asset, such as a stock, is compared.
Beta: The beta is a measure of a stock's systematic risk, which reflects the sensitivity of the stock's returns to changes in the overall market. A stock with a beta of 1 is expected to move in line with the overall market, while a stock with a beta greater than 1 is expected to be more volatile than the market, and a stock with a beta less than 1 is expected to be less volatile than the market.
The CAPM uses beta as a measure of a stock's risk relative to the overall market, with the assumption that higher beta stocks are riskier and should therefore command a higher expected return.
Expected Market Return: The CAPM also takes into account the expected return of the overall market. This can be estimated based on historical market performance, market forecasts, or other relevant market data. The expected market return represents the average return that investors expect to earn from the overall market.
By combining these three components, the CAPM helps in estimating the expected return of a stock or portfolio by equating its risk (measured by beta) to the expected market return and the risk-free rate. The formula for the CAPM is typically represented as follows:
Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta × (Expected Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)
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the difference between ending inventory using lifo and ending inventory using fifo is referred to as the group of answer choices fifo reserve. inventory reserve. lifo reserve. periodic reserve.
The difference between ending inventory using LIFO and ending inventory using FIFO is referred to as the LIFO reserve.
The difference between ending inventory using LIFO and ending inventory using FIFO is referred to as the LIFO reserve. The LIFO reserve is a component of the inventory reserve, which is the amount of money set aside to cover any losses that may arise from inventory obsolescence, damage, or theft. The LIFO reserve is a type of periodic reserve, which is the difference between the ending inventory value under one inventory method and the value under another inventory method, calculated at the end of each accounting period.
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why is trust a function of both character and competence?
a. People must have confidence in the other person's abilities and competence. b. You are likely to follow someone who has the best of intentions even if he/she has a track record of failing to get things done correctly. c. Either character or competence alone is likely to engender trust. d. You are unlikely to follow someone who is quite competent if you believe he/she is only looking out for what is best for him/her.
Trust is a function of both character and competence because both elements are essential for building and maintaining trust in any relationship or interaction.
a. People must have confidence in the other person's abilities and competence, as it assures them that the individual has the necessary skills and knowledge to accomplish tasks and achieve desired outcomes.
b. However, competence alone is not enough, as you are likely to follow someone who has the best of intentions even if he/she has a track record of failing to get things done correctly. This highlights the importance of character, which includes honesty, integrity, and empathy.
c. Either character or competence alone is unlikely to engender trust, as both elements are needed to create a balanced and trustworthy individual. Trust is built on the foundation of a person's character and their ability to demonstrate competence consistently.
d. You are unlikely to follow someone who is quite competent if you believe he/she is only looking out for what is best for him/her. In such cases, the individual's character is in question, making it difficult to trust them fully, even if they possess the necessary skills and expertise.
In conclusion, trust is a function of both character and competence because people need to feel confident in another person's abilities and believe in their good intentions to establish a strong foundation of trust. Both elements are crucial in creating and sustaining trust in various aspects of life.
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Blossom Company begins the month of March with $21.080 of Work in Process Inventory from Job 324. Information from job
sheets shows the following additional costs assigned during March, April, and May of 2022:
Study -
Manufacturing Costs Assigned Job No March April May
324. $32,240
325 24.800. $34,720 $18,600
326. 50.840. 13.840
327 19.840. 48.380
328. 42.160. 63.240
Job 324 was completed in March. Jobs 325 and 327 were completed in May, and Job 326 was completed in April. Jobs are sold during
the month after completion. Total revenue for jobs sold during the 3-month period is $179,800.
Calculate the balance of the Work in Process Inventory accounts at the end of May
Job 328
Work in Process Inventory Accounts
Calculate Finished Goods Inventory accounts at the end of May
Finished Goods Inventory Accounts
job 325
job 327
the Finished Goods Inventory accounts at the end of May for Job 325 and Job 327 are $120,280 and $111,580, respectively.
To calculate the balance of the Work in Process Inventory accounts at the end of May, we need to first calculate the total manufacturing costs assigned to Job 328 in May, which is $63,240. Adding this to the beginning balance of $21,080 and subtracting the manufacturing costs assigned to Jobs 324, 325, 326, and 327, we get:
Work in Process Inventory for Job 328 = $21,080 + $63,240 - $32,240 - $34,720 - $18,600 - $13,840 - $48,380 = $36,540
Therefore, the balance of the Work in Process Inventory accounts at the end of May for Job 328 is $36,540.
To calculate the Finished Goods Inventory accounts at the end of May for Job 325 and Job 327, we need to first calculate their total manufacturing costs and subtract it from the total revenue earned from the jobs sold during the 3-month period, which is $179,800. Here are the calculations:
For Job 325:
Total manufacturing costs = $24,800 + $34,720 = $59,520
Revenue earned = $179,800
Finished Goods Inventory for Job 325 = $179,800 - $59,520 = $120,280
For Job 327:
Total manufacturing costs = $19,840 + $48,380 = $68,220
Revenue earned = $179,800
Finished Goods Inventory for Job 327 = $179,800 - $68,220 = $111,580
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You have been asked to balance a flow shop assembly operation to achieve an output rate of 96 units over two nine-hour shifts. Task times and precedence relationships are shown in the table below: Task Predecessor Time (minutes) A ... 10 B А 4 C B 5 D B, C 10 E C, D 8 F E 9
What is the cycle time_____ minutes.
The cycle time for the flow shop is 11.25 minutes. In order to calculate the cycle time, we need to first calculate the total time required to produce 96 units over two nine-hour shifts.
First, let's calculate the total production time available and determine the cycle time.
Step 1: Calculate the total production time available.
Two nine-hour shifts = 2 x 9 hours = 18 hours
Convert hours to minutes: 18 hours x 60 minutes/hour = 1080 minutes
Step 2: Determine the desired output rate.
You want to achieve an output rate of 96 units over the total production time available.
Step 3: Calculate the cycle time.
Cycle time = Total production time available / Desired output rate
Cycle time = 1080 minutes / 96 units
Cycle time = 11.25 minutes
Therefore, the cycle time for the flow shop assembly operation is 11.25 minutes.
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A sudden decrease in the market demand in a competitive industry leads to
a. demand creating supply.
b. new firms being attracted to the industry.
c. losses in the short run and average profits in the long run.
d. above-average profits in the short run and average profits in the long run.
A sudden decrease in the market demand in a competitive industry leads to losses in the short run and average profits in the long run. When market demand decreases, businesses in the industry experience a reduction in sales, leading to short-term losses.
In the short run, firms will not be able to quickly adjust their output levels to match the decreased demand, resulting in excess supply and lower prices. In other words, firms may continue to produce at their previous levels despite the decrease in demand. This will lead to losses for firms.
In the long run, some firms may exit the industry, reducing supply and allowing the remaining firms to earn average profits. Losses in the short run and average profits, in the long run, is a plausible outcomes.
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the income method, basing life insurance needs on multiples of current income, is the easiest and most accurate method of determining how much life insurance a person should buy.
true false
According to the question, the easiest and most accurate method of determining how much life insurance a person should buy is false.
What is insurance?Insurance is a form of risk management that provides protection against economic losses caused by sudden, unexpected, and/or unfortunate incidents. It helps people to manage their financial losses that may arise from accidents, natural disasters, illnesses, and other losses. Insurance is a contract between the insurer and the insured, where the insurer agrees to provide financial protection in exchange for a payment from the insured.
The income method is not the most accurate or reliable method of determining how much life insurance a person should buy. Other methods, such as the needs-based approach, are more comprehensive and provide more accurate estimates of the amount of life insurance needed.
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what part of the offered deal is the interest rate? (1 point) 2 year term up to $40,000 6% compounded annually $500 up-front payment
The interest rate for a $500 down payment, a 2-year term up to $40,000, and 6% yearly compounding is 6%.
When revenue from an asset, such as interest or capital gains, is reinvested to produce more income over time, the process of compounding takes place. Earnings from the investment will be generated by the initial principal of the investment as well as the cumulative returns from earlier periods, which are calculated using exponential functions.
Linear growth is different from compounding in that only the principal earns interest every cycle.The term "compounding" refers to the process by which interest is accrued on an asset's principle as well as cumulative interest. Compound interest is a phenomenon that directly relates to the temporal value of money (TMV) theory.
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Which of the following observations would provide evidence against the weak- form efficient market hypothesis? (Select all that apply) (a) You do a study which shows that past capital expenditures of a company have predictive pow er for future ret urnS. (b) You find that weekly returns are negatively correlated (c) Stocks returns in September are significantly lower compared to other months of the year (d) You find that daily prices are positively correlated
Observations that would provide evidence against the weak-form efficient market hypothesis include:
(a) A study showing that past capital expenditures of a company have predictive power for future returns. This would imply that past financial data can be used to predict future stock performance, which contradicts the weak-form hypothesis, which states that all past market information is already reflected in stock prices. (b) Finding that weekly returns are negatively correlated. This suggests that there are patterns in stock returns that can be exploited, which goes against the weak-form hypothesis, which assumes that stock prices follow a random walk and are independent of each other. (c) Stock returns in September were significantly lower compared to other months of the year. This indicates a seasonal pattern in stock returns, which contradicts the weak-form hypothesis, as it assumes that there should be no such patterns in stock prices. (d) Finding that daily prices are positively correlated. This observation also goes against the weak-form hypothesis, which asserts that stock prices should be independent and follow a random walk. If daily prices are positively correlated, it means that there is a pattern in stock prices that can potentially be exploited for profit.
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Development is the planned search for new knowledge with the hope that such knowledge will be useful in developing a new product or process.
True or False?
The answer for the statement ''Development is the planned search for new knowledge with the hope that such knowledge will be useful in developing a new product or process'' is True.
Development is a deliberate and purposeful effort to find and acquire new knowledge with the expectation that such knowledge will enable the creation of new products, processes, or services that will be of value to society.
This search for knowledge is often guided by a specific goal or objective, and may involve a range of activities, such as research, experimentation, and testing.
By systematically pursuing new knowledge, organizations can improve their ability to innovate, compete, and adapt to changing market conditions, and thereby enhance their long-term viability and success.
In essence, development is the driving force behind progress and growth, both for individuals and for society as a whole.
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What CREL Status can be used to end a Member's Conditional Release?
A CREL (Conditional Release) status is utilized when a member of an organization or institution is required to meet specific conditions before they can be fully released from their obligations.
In the context of a military or similar institution, this might refer to completing certain training requirements, serving a specific amount of time, or fulfilling other obligations before being eligible for release.
To end a member's Conditional Release, the appropriate authority would typically use a status called "Expiration of Conditional Release" or ECR. The ECR indicates that the individual has met all the conditions outlined in their Conditional Release agreement, and they are now eligible for full release from their obligations. This could involve transferring to another unit, being discharged from service, or even transitioning to a reserve component, depending on the specific situation and requirements.
It's essential for the member to comply with the terms of their Conditional Release and maintain clear communication with their chain of command to ensure a smooth transition to ECR status. Failure to meet the conditions might lead to disciplinary actions, extension of the Conditional Release period, or other consequences as deemed necessary by the institution.
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In Sage 50, which account contains summary information about the total cost of merchandise on hand and available for sale?
a. Payroll checking account
b. Supplies Inventory
c. Merchandise Inventory
d. Accounts Payable
e. Accumulated Depreciation
In Sage 50, the account that contains summary information about the total cost of merchandise on hand and available for sale is the (c) Merchandise Inventory account.
This account is an essential part of managing and tracking the inventory levels and costs in a business. It represents the value of goods that the company has purchased for resale, and it's constantly updated as inventory is bought, sold, or adjusted.
The Merchandise Inventory account plays a vital role in determining the company's financial health by helping to calculate gross profit and cost of goods sold. This information is crucial for making strategic decisions and analyzing the company's overall performance.
The other accounts mentioned, such as Payroll Checking Account (a), Supplies Inventory (b), Accounts Payable (d), and Accumulated Depreciation (e), serve different purposes within the business accounting system. Payroll Checking Account is used to manage employee salaries and wages, Supplies Inventory holds the value of consumable items, Accounts Payable tracks the amounts owed to suppliers, and Accumulated Depreciation accounts for the decrease in value of long-term assets over time. While each account is important, the Merchandise Inventory is the one specifically related to the cost of merchandise on hand and available for sale in Sage 50.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Merchandise Inventory.
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Brayden's job is going great and this past year he decided to work part-time, so that he could go to school full-time for his master's degree. Brayden went to a business school, and tuition and fees were $25,000 for the year. He paid for his tuition and fees using a combination of savings, current income, scholarship, employer provided tuition assistance, and student loans. It is the end of the year and Brayden is filing his tax return. His total income and benefits are as follows: • Wages: $50,000 (as reported on his W2) • Employer provided tuition assistance: $5,000 • Scholarship: $8,000 • Student loan proceeds: $12,000 In addition to tuition, Brayden had the following expenditures: •Student loan interest: $3,000 (as reported to Brayden by his lender on Form 1098-E) • Books: $1,500 • Rent: $14,000 It is now time for Brayden to complete his tax return. Brayden is 28 years old and is in a relationship with Ashely, planning to get married next year. What is Brayden's Adjusted Gross Income (AGI)? a. $47,000 b. $50,000 c. $52,000 d. $45,500
the correct answer is not given in the options provided. The correct answer is $72,000.
To calculate Brayden's Adjusted Gross Income (AGI), we need to start with his total income and benefits, and then subtract certain deductions. These deductions include:
Employer provided tuition assistance: $5,000 (excluded from income)
Scholarship: $8,000 (excluded from income)
Student loan interest: $3,000 (an "above-the-line" deduction)
Therefore, Brayden's AGI can be calculated as follows
Total income and benefits = $50,000 + $5,000 + $8,000 + $12,000 = $75,000
Above-the-line deduction for student loan interest = $3,000
Adjusted Gross Income (AGI) = $75,000 - $3,000 = $72,000
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T/F if the marginal propensity to save is 0.35, the multiplier is 2.86.
The statement is false. The multiplier is not directly determined by the marginal propensity to save (MPS) alone.
What is Marginal Propensity?
Marginal propensity refers to the change in consumption or saving that occurs in response to a change in income. It is a concept in economics that measures the relationship between changes in income and changes in spending or saving.
The multiplier is a concept in economics that measures the change in output or income resulting from an initial change in autonomous spending (such as government spending or investment) or consumption spending.
The formula for the multiplier is:
Multiplier = 1 / (1 - MPC)
where MPC is the marginal propensity to consume, which is the fraction of additional income that is spent on consumption. MPS, on the other hand, is the fraction of additional income that is saved.
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the amount recoverable by an injured employee under each category of damages from a workers' compensation system is frequently more than or at least equivalent to what would be obtained in a successful negligence suit. select one: true false
The statement "the amount recoverable by an injured employee under each category of damages from a workers' compensation system is frequently more than or at least equivalent to what would be obtained in a successful negligence suit" is generally considered true.
Workers' compensation systems are designed to provide employees with adequate compensation for their injuries without having to go through the lengthy and costly process of a negligence lawsuit.
Workers compensation includes those monetary awards which are given to them in return for their services. It also comprises of the benefits which is provided to the families of the workers in case of their death.
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What is the key factor in determining the sales mix if a company has limited resources? A. Total contribution margin B. Contribution margin per unit of limited resource C. The amount of fixed costs per unit D. The cost of limited resources
The key factor in determining the sales mix if a company has limited resources is the contribution margin per unit of limited resource. The correct option is B. Contribution margin per unit of limited resource.
This is because the contribution margin is the amount by which the revenue from the sale of a product exceeds the variable costs associated with producing and selling that product. When a company has limited resources, it must carefully allocate those resources in order to maximize profits. By determining the contribution margin per unit of limited resource, the company can determine which products will provide the greatest return on investment for each unit of the limited resource.
By focusing on products with the highest contribution margin per unit of limited resource, the company can maximize its profits while still making the most efficient use of its resources. The other factors, such as total contribution margin, the amount of fixed costs per unit, and the cost of limited resources, are also important to consider, but the contribution margin per unit of limited resource is the most critical factor when making sales mix decisions in a resource-constrained environment. The correct option is B. Contribution margin per unit of limited resource.
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_____ is the process of setting up assets by pooling individual loans and selling shares in the pool.Securitization Diving Denomination Amortization
The answer to your question is Securitization. Securitization is the process of setting up assets by pooling individual loans and selling shares in the pool.
The answer to your question is Securitization. Securitization is the process of setting up assets by pooling individual loans and selling shares in the pool. This allows for the loans to be turned into tradable securities that can be bought and sold in financial markets. Denomination and amortization are also important factors in securitization, as the shares in the pool are typically divided into different denominations and amortization schedules based on the underlying loans.
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Securitization is the process of setting up assets by pooling individual loans and selling shares in the pool.
This is a financial technique that involves bundling assets, such as mortgages, auto loans, or credit card debt, into a pool or portfolio, which is then sold as securities to investors. The cash flow generated from the underlying assets is used to pay the interest and principal on the securities. Securitization enables the originators of the loans to transfer the credit risk to investors and free up capital for further lending. It also allows investors to invest in a diversified portfolio of assets with varying degrees of risk and return.
Since the financial crisis, regulations and reforms have been put in place to address the risks associated with securitization. These include greater transparency in the securitization process, increased disclosure requirements for asset-backed securities, and higher capital requirements for financial institutions that issue or invest in securitized products. Despite these efforts, securitization remains a complex and often controversial aspect of the financial system, with ongoing debates over its benefits and risks.
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