at 90kph, how far do you travel in 6 hours​

Let’s say the first class is X.

Avg(X)= x/20=15

X=300

Let’s say the second class is Y.

Avg(Y)= Y/30=20

Y=600

X+Y=900

AVG(X+Y)=900/(20+30)=900/50=18

The average of both classes is 18.

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

we substitute the values first

5 * (the absolute value of )-5) + 7

absolute value means neither the positive or negative value, so no signs before that number (the one your taking the absolute value of)

5*5+7

5*5 = 25

25+7 = 32

done!

solution//

= 4(m-3) = 24

= 4m-12 = 24

= 4-12+12 = 24+12

= 4m = 36

= 4m = 36

4 4

= m = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

Thank you

[tex]\sf\purple{The\:value\:of\:m\:is\:9.}[/tex] ✅

[tex]\large\mathfrak{{\pmb{\underline{\red{Step-by-step\:explanation}}{\orange{:}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]4 \: (m - 3) = 24 \\ ⇝4 \: m - 12 = 24 \\ ⇝4 \: m = 24 + 12 \\ ⇝4 \: m = 36 \\ ⇝m = \frac{36}{4} \\ ⇝m = 9[/tex]

To verify:-

[tex]4(m - 3) = 24 \\ ⇝4(9 - 3) = 24 \\ ⇝4 \times 6 = 24 \\ ⇝24 = 24 \\ ⇝L.H.S.=R. H. S[/tex]

Hence verified.

[tex]\large\mathfrak{{\pmb{\underline{\orange{Mystique }}{\orange{♡}}}}}[/tex]

Answer: 42 -(-6)= 48

Step-by-step explanation:

a negative - a negative will always equal a positive

:)

Answer:

a. 0.349

b. 0.651

c. 0.93

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the Question,

Thus, p=0.10 , n=10 &  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}n\\x\\\end{array}\right] = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]  

Now, Use Binomial distribution = [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}n\\x\\\end{array}\right]*(p)^{x} *{(1-p)}^{n-x}[/tex]

a. p(x=0) ⇒  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\0\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{0} *{(0.9)}^{10}[/tex] = 0.349  

Thus, The Probability that No one has done a one-time fling = 0.349

b. p(x≥1) = 1 - p(x=0)   ⇒   1 - 0.349 = 0.651

Thus, The Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling = 0.651

c. p(x≤2) = p(x=0) + p(x=1) + p(x=2)

p(x≤2) = [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\0\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{0} *{(0.9)}^{10}[/tex] + [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\1\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{1} *{(0.9)}^{9}[/tex] + [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\2\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{2} *{(0.9)}^{8}[/tex]

on Solving, we get

p(x≤2) = 0.349 + 0.347 + 0.194

p(x≤2) = 0.93

Thus, The Probability that No More Than two person have done a one-time fling = 0.93

The answer is attached. I hope this helps answer your question!

Answer:

150

Step-by-step explanation:

35÷7=5 therefore each 5 apples is equal to 1 orange

Answer:

150

Step-by-step explanation:

we're gonna compare ratios. if the initial ratio is 35/7, then we will need to make a similar one for this question. with apples on top, we'll write 'x/30' and cross multiply and solve to get 150

Answer:c

Step-by-step explanation:

c

Answer:

check the picture

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope you get it

Answer:

yh its true

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  True

Step-by-step explanation:

No x-value is repeated, so the table represents a functional relation.

  [tex]\boxed{\textsf{True}}[/tex]

Answer:

The equation of line 5 x + 3 y = 10.

Step-by-step explanation:

Two points (- 4, 10 ) and (- 1, 5)

The equation of line passing through the two points is given by

[tex](y -y_{1})=\frac {y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\times (x- x_{1})\\\\(y - 10)=\frac {5 - 10 }{- 1+ 4}\times (x +4)\\\\y -10 = \frac{-5}{3}\times (x +4)\\\\3 y - 30 =- 5 x - 20\\\\5 x + 3 y = 10[/tex]

Answer:

y = -5/3x + 10/3

3y = -5x + 10

5x + 3y = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it right on Edge

Answer:

combination

Step-by-step explanation:

solution :

6C2 + 15C7

=6,450

Answer:

0.281 = 28.1% probability a given player averaged less than 190.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

A bowling leagues mean score is 197 with a standard deviation of 12.

This means that [tex]\mu = 197, \sigma = 12[/tex]

What is the probability a given player averaged less than 190?

This is the p-value of Z when X = 190.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{190 - 197}{12}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.58[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.58[/tex] has a p-value of 0.281.

0.281 = 28.1% probability a given player averaged less than 190.

Answer:

i think its 60%

Step-by-step explanation:

if its wrong im rlly sorry

mark me as brainliest if its right pls

Hope this help!!!

Have a nice day!!!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex](f-g)(x)=x^2-4x-21[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the two functions:

[tex]f(x)=x^2-3x-28\text{ and } g(x)=x-7[/tex]

And we want to find:

[tex](f-g)(x)[/tex]

This is equivalent to:

[tex]=f(x)-g(x)[/tex]

Substitute:

[tex]=(x^2-3x-28)-(x-7)[/tex]

Distribute:

[tex]=x^2-3x-28-x+7[/tex]

Rearrange:

[tex]=(x^2)+(-3x-x)+(-28+7)[/tex]

Hence:

[tex](f-g)(x)=x^2-4x-21[/tex]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

i think thats not my answer

Answer:

MBI, MBV, ABV, ABI, MPI, MPV, APV, API

Answer:

3      2

6      2

Step-by-step explanation:

a/(a + b) = 0.6

b/(a + b) = 0.25

c/(c + d) = 0.3333 = 1/3

d/(a + d) = 0.5

Answer:

3 2

6 2

Step-by-step explanation:

X/2 - 5 = 20

Add 5 to both sides

X/2 = 25

Multiply both sides by 2

X = 50

The answer is x = 50

Answer:

x/2-5=20

1/2x-5=20

Multiple both sides by 2

x-10=40

x=40+10

Add the numbers

x=50

-------------------

Hope it helps

Have a great day!!

Answer:

m∠QRS = 49°

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles are angles that add up to 90°. So m∠ABC + m∠QRS = 90°. When you simplify you get 41° + m∠QRS = 90°. So m∠QRS = 49°.

Answer:

7,982 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

c = πd

25077 = πd

Divide both sides by π

25077/π = d

d = 7,982 ft

----------------------

I think the 25077 number in the question might be a typo

Just divide the correct number by 3.14 to get the diameter.

Answer:

odd

Step-by-step explanation:

odd

Answer:

x ≤ -½

Step-by-step explanation:

symetry axis => x = (-4+3)/2

x = -1/2

so, the function decreasing over interval x≤ -½

The function is decreasing over the interval (3, ∞).

To determine if the function is decreasing or increasing between these critical points, we can test a point within each interval. Let's pick a test point in each interval and evaluate the function at these points.

Interval I: (-∞, -4)

Let's choose x = -5 as a test point in this interval.

Calculate f(-5) to determine the function's behavior at this point.

Interval II: (-4, 3)

Let's choose x = 0 as a test point in this interval.

Calculate f(0) to determine the function's behavior at this point.

Interval III: (3, ∞)

Let's choose x = 4 as a test point in this interval.

Calculate f(4) to determine the function's behavior at this point.

If the function values decrease as we move from left to right in an interval, then the function is decreasing over that interval.

To know more about function here

https://brainly.com/question/28193995

#SPJ2

Answer:

A 95% prediction interval for the drying time for the next trial of the paint is between 3.25 and 4.33 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

First we have to find the sample mean and the sample standard deviation.

We have 15 measurements. Using a calculator, the mean is [tex]\overline{x} = 3.79[/tex] and the standard deviation is of [tex]s = 0.97[/tex].

Now, we have the standard deviation for the sample, which means that the t-distribution is used to solve this question.

T interval

The first step to solve this problem is finding how many degrees of freedom, we have. This is the sample size subtracted by 1. So

df = 15 - 1 = 14

95% confidence interval

Now, we have to find a value of T, which is found looking at the t table, with 14 degrees of freedom(y-axis) and a confidence level of [tex]1 - \frac{1 - 0.95}{2} = 0.975[/tex]. So we have T = 2.1448

The margin of error is:

[tex]M = T\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}} = 2.1448\frac{0.97}{\sqrt{15}} = 0.54[/tex]

In which s is the standard deviation of the sample and n is the size of the sample.

The lower end of the interval is the sample mean subtracted by M. So it is 3.79 - 0.54 = 3.25 hours

The upper end of the interval is the sample mean added to M. So it is 3.79 + 0.54 = 4.33 hours

A 95% prediction interval for the drying time for the next trial of the paint is between 3.25 and 4.33 hours.

Answer:

"If the line has a slope that is not 0, then the the line is not horizontal".

Step-by-step explanation:

The contrapositive of "If p then q" is "If not q then not p".

p=a line is horizontal

not p= a line that is not horizontal

q=the line has a slope equal to zero

not q=the line has a slope that is not zero

The equivalent statement in contrapositive form is therefore:

"If the line has a slope that is not 0, then the the line is not horizontal".