The nurse determines that the client is experiencing neutropenia based on 800 cells/mm3 absolute neutrophil count.
Having too few neutrophils, a particular kind of white blood cell, leads to neutropenia. While all white blood cells aid in the body's ability to fight infections, neutrophils are particularly crucial in the battle against some illnesses, particularly those brought on by bacteria. It's likely that you won't be aware of your predicament.
You don't necessarily have neutropenia if only one blood test reveals low neutrophil numbers. If a blood test indicates you have neutropenia, it needs to be repeated for confirmation because these levels might change day to day.
You may be more susceptible to infections if you have neutropenia. Even common oral and digestive system bacteria can cause significant sickness when neutropenia is severe.
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true or false? the two factors affecting community health that need special attention when dealing with health problems of adolescents and young adults are community organizing and physical factors.
The given statement is False. When addressing the health issues of teenagers and young adults, community organization and physical factors are the two aspects of community health that require special attention.
What are physical factors in public health?Harmful substances, like air pollution or proximity to toxic sites (the focus of traditional environmental epidemiology), access to a variety of health-related resources (such as healthy or unhealthy foods, recreational opportunities, and medical care), and more are all elements of the physical environment that are significant to health.By limiting the possibilities for reactions between substrates and enzymes or decomposer organisms, physical variables confer biological stability to organic matter in soils.Temperature, light, and hydrology—including precipitation, soil moisture, flow rates, and sea level—are crucial physical factors. Infrequent occurrences that alter ecological systems, such as fires, floods, and storms, are also important.To Learn more About physical factors Refer To:
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what warning signs should the nurse teach the client to observe for during the second and third trimester of pregnancy?
There are many warning signs a nurse should teach the client to observe for during the second and third trimester of pregnancy.
There are many symptoms and warning signs during the second and third trimester like severe abdominal pain, contraction of the uterus before 36 week, vaginal bleeding, high fever, decrese in the baby's movement count, uncomfortable during urination, swelling in the face, fast weight gain, continuous vomiting, continuous and severe headaches. Especially, third trimester is the most important part of the pregnancy. A nurse should give all these details about symptoms and warning sign so that anyone can consult a doctor immediately. are the most important part of the pregnancy. there are other problems like pre mature labor within 37 weeks then immediate consultation of doctor is required. If there is the case water bag leakage then consult your doctor immediately.
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when would supplemental enteral tube feedings be necessary for a client with cystic fibrosis? a. inadequate sodium chloride intake b. inadequate energy intakes c. the need for water-miscible forms of fat-soluble vitamins d. steatorrhea
Inadequate sodium chloride intake. People with CF must consume more salty foods because they lose a lot of salt through sweat.
What is Cystic fibrosis ?Your digestive system, lungs, and other organs might become damaged by the illness known as cystic fibrosis. It's a hereditary condition brought on by a damaged gene that can be passed down through the generations. The cells that make mucus, perspiration, and digestive fluids are impacted by cystic fibrosis.
Cough, recurrent lung infections, an inability to gain weight, and greasy stools are just a few of the symptoms that might occur. Treatments may lessen consequences and ease symptoms. The screening of newborns aids in early diagnosis.
Treatments may lessen consequences and ease symptoms. The screening of newborns aids in early diagnosis. Postural drainage is the use of gravity to drain pulmonary secretions. It is used to treat a number of conditions that result in the accumulation of lungs' secretions.
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a client who has just given a blood sample for pregnancy testing in the health care provider's office asks the nurse what method of confirming pregnancy is the most accurate. the nurse explains the difference between presumptive symptoms, probable signs, and positive signs. what should the nurse mention as an example of a positive sign, which may be used to diagnose pregnancy?
Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound should be a positive sign, which may be used to diagnose pregnancy.
The manner of figuring out a disorder, situation, or harm from its symptoms and signs and symptoms. A health history, bodily examination, and exams, together with blood tests, imaging checks, and biopsies, may be used to assist make a analysis.
A diagnosis made on the idea of clinical signs and said signs and symptoms, in preference to diagnostic checks. A analysis primarily based drastically on laboratory reports or check results, rather than the physical exam of the affected person.
Your diagnosis is the basis for any remedy you may obtain, from drugs to surgical operation. An correct diagnosis is important to save you losing valuable time on the incorrect course of remedy.
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ectopic pregnancies are true gynecologic emergencies and are considered the leading cause of maternal death in the first trimester. what diagnostic test would the nurse expect to have ordered for a suspected ectopic pregnancy?
The diagnostic test and subsequent serial hCG tests are what the nurse anticipates being prescribed in the US for a probable ectopic pregnancy.
To evaluate if the change is compatible with a normal or abnormal pregnancy, serum hCG is tested serially (after 48 to 72 hours). Ectopic pregnancy or IUP cannot be diagnosed based only on an hCG level.
A wide range of hCG levels was comparable in terms of the risk of tubal rupture. In a different investigation, women with serum concentrations ranging from ten to 189 720 IU/L experienced 38 cases of rupture. Therefore, until the serum hCG level is less than 5 IU/L, it is impossible to rule out an ectopic pregnancy or forecast the risk of rupture from a single measurement.
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the national patient safety goal 6 is to improve the safety of clinical alarm systems. what is the rationale for this goal?
The national patient safety goal 6 is to improve the safety of clinical alarm systems and it's rationale is to improve patient safety if clinical alarm systems are not properly managed.
The National Patient Safety Goals may be a quality and patient safety improvement program established by the Joint Commission in 2003. The NPSGs were established to assist licenced organizations address specific areas of concern with regard to patient safety.
Patient Safety may be a health care discipline that emerged with the evolving complexness in health care systems and also the ensuing rise of patient damage in health care facilities. It aims to forestall and scale back risks, errors and damage that occur to patients throughout provision of health care.
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the pharmacology instructor is providing education regarding propylthiouracil to the nursing students. what would the instructor identify as the primary mode of action for this medication?
The pharmacology instructor is providing education regarding propylthiouracil to the nursing students and primary mode of action for this medication is inhibition of production of thyroid hormone.
Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication. It works by creating it more durable for the body to use iodine to create internal secretion. It doesn't block the consequences of internal secretion that was created by the body before its use was begun. This medication is offered solely along with your doctor's prescription.
Thyroid hormone is that the hormone that controls your body's metabolism, the method within which your body transforms the food you get at energy. the 2 main hormones your thyroid releases — thyroxin (T4) and liothyronine (T3) — jointly form up hormone.
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icd-10-cm code i25.110, ashd, native artery with unstable angina is a ________ code.
icd-10-cm code i25.110, ashd, native artery with unstable angina is a medical code.
Unstable angina, which is a type of chest pain that occurs when the blood supply to the heart is reduced.This can happen due to a blockage in the arteries that supply blood to the heart. The code is classified as a diagnosis code, which means that it can be used to diagnose a patient with unstable angina.Unstable angina, which is a type of chest pain that occurs when the blood supply to the heart muscle is reduced. The code is used to indicate that the angina is a result of atherosclerosis, or hardening of the arteries.
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proper application of rice--rest, ice, compression, and elevation--can effectively control inflammation due to an ankle sprain. why would compression provided by a correctly wrapped elastic ace bandage be helpful in preventing further inflammation? proper application of rice--rest, ice, compression, and elevation--can effectively control inflammation due to an ankle sprain. why would compression provided by a correctly wrapped elastic ace bandage be helpful in preventing further inflammation? because it reduces pain associated with joint injury because it promotes increased blood flow to the injury because it promotes fluid leakage into injured tissue because it immobilized/stabilizes an injured ankle
Immobilization and stabilization of an injured ankle can prevent further inflammation due to a sprain.
What is inflammation?
A protective mechanism of the body includes inflammation. It is the procedure by which the immune system identifies, rejects, and kick-starts the healing process after damaging and foreign stimuli. It's possible for inflammation to be acute or persistent.
A correctly wrapped elastic ace bandage be helpful in preventing further inflammation because it immobilizes/stabilizes an injured ankle.
Hence, option (1) is correct.
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Who is expected to ensure the highest possible
standards of quality are maintained in the conduct
of a trial?
The sponsor expected to ensure the highest possible standards of quality are maintained in the conduct of a trial.
To guarantee that trials are done and data is collected, documented (recorded), and reported in compliance with the protocol, GCP, and the relevant regulatory requirement. The sponsor is in charge of implementing and maintaining quality assurance and quality control systems with established SOPs (s).The clinical trial's sponsor is in charge of maintaining the investigational product's or study intervention's safety.Documents that give rules, specifications, guidelines, or characteristics that can be applied consistently to ensure that materials, products, processes, and services are appropriate for their intended use are referred to as quality standards.GLP and GMP The Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) are two further noteworthy sets of quality standards examples (GLP). A set of procedures and documentation known as GMP is used to guarantee that manufacturing items are created and consistently monitored against quality standards.To know more about sponsers check the below link:
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Which is a novel histone deacetylase inhibitor used for cancer treatment?
Answer: FR901228
Explanation:
(I don't know if this will help, as I don't know what the original options were.) One example of a novel histone deacetylase inhibitor (HDACi) is FR901228.
The trichostatin A structural analogue Suberoylanilide hydroxamic acid (SAHA) has shown promise in cancer therapy. It was the first approved HDAC inhibitor for clinical treatment by the FDA
What is inhibitor?
Substances known as inhibitors lower the frequency of chemical reactions like corrosion. They might be talking about corrosion inhibitors, which help extend the life of materials by reducing corrosion progression rates.
Another name for an inhibitor is a corrosion inhibitor or a rust inhibitor.
Treatment for inhibitors can be expensive and complicated, and each case is unique. Inhibitors can appear and vanish in response to therapy, and occasionally they can vanish on their own (known as "transient inhibitors"). The presence of inhibitors can be decreased through the use of therapies such immune tolerance induction (ITI) therapy, bypassing drugs, and high-dose clotting factor concentrates. Treatment for inhibitors can be expensive and complicated, and each case is unique. Inhibitors can appear and vanish in response to therapy, and occasionally they can vanish on their own (known as "transient inhibitors").
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a 25 year-old presents with pain in the proximal ulna after falling directly on the forearm. x-ray shows fracture of the proximal 1/3rd of the ulna. there is an associated anterior radial head dislocation. what is the proper name for this condition?
The proper name of the given condition is Monteggia fracture
The proximal radioulnar joint is the synovial joint that connects the proximal ends of the radius and ulna.
In this joint, the circumferent head of the radius is placed within the ring formed by the radial notch of the ulna and the annular ligament. This configuration makes this joint as the pivot joint.
The Monteggia fracture is a fracture of a proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the proximal head of the radius. It is named in the memory of Giovanni Battista Monteggia in 1814.
Hence, the proper name is Monteggia fracture.
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Place the events involved in generation of an action potential in the correct order of occurrence from left to right.
There are 5 steps of an action potential. The correct order of occurrence in the generation of an action potential is: 4, 2, 1, 5, 3.
What is an action potential?An action potential is a sudden, fast, transitory, and propagating change of the resting membrane potential. These are the steps of generation of an action potential, which are:
The resting potential after the previous action.Threshold, while the stimulus causes Na+ channels to open.The Na+ influx and depolarization.The Na+ channels close while the K+ channels open.K+ efflux and repolarization happen.The hyperpolarization started, then the K+ channels close.Learn more about the action potential here https://brainly.com/question/23879707
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the critical care nurse is precepting a new nurse on the unit. together they are caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube and is receiving mechanical ventilation. what action should the critical care nurse recommend when caring for the cuff?
The action that the critical care nurse should recommend when caring for the cuff is to monitor the pressure in the cuff at least every 8 hours (Option C).
Why is it important to control the pressure in the cuff when receiving mechanical ventilation?It is fundamental to control the pressure in the cuff when receiving mechanical ventilation in order to prevent aspiration, and also confirm respiration when supporting the process of tracheal perfusion.
Moreover, mechanical ventilation refers to a device used in the clinical setting in order to ensure respiration in a patient and or client who is unable to breathe on his or her own.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that we need to monitor the pressure in the cuff during mechanical ventilation to avoid aspiration, and also confirm breath in the patient.
Complete question:
The critical care nurse is precepting a new nurse on the unit. Together they are caring for a patient who has a tracheostomy tube and is receiving mechanical ventilation. What action should the critical care nurse recommend when caring for the cuff?
A) Deflate the cuff overnight to prevent tracheal tissue trauma.
B) Inflate the cuff to the highest possible pressure in order to prevent aspiration.
C) Monitor the pressure in the cuff at least every 8 hours
D) Keep the tracheostomy tube plugged at all times.
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all of the following are considered effective study strategies, except: group of answer choices study in a quiet, well-lit place. take short breaks if you are studying for a long time. schedule a consistent study-review time for each course at least once a week. consume sugary foods or drinks to avoid fatigue.
Unhealthy processed foods like baked goods and soda, which are loaded with refined and added sugars, flood the brain with glucose. "Sugar flood" can cause brain inflammation, depression, and fatigue. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
What are harmful effects of sugary food?High-fructose corn syrup and other refined and added sugars are found in unhealthy processed meals like soda and baked goods, which overload the brain with glucose. This "sugar flood" may cause inflammation in the brain, which could eventually contribute to weariness and melancholy.
Increased inflammation and excessive sugar consumption from added and processed sugars can lead to increased anxiety and erratic mood swings.
Sugar has an addictive quality, therefore as we consume less of it over time, the less we will crave it. Shop for whole foods that aren't manufactured with additional sugars to reduce your sugar addiction.
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the nurse is reviewing the laboratory and diagnostic test results of a 5-year-old child scheduled to be seen in the clinic. the nurse notes that the primary health care provider documented that diagnostic studies revealed the presence of reed-sternberg cells. the nurse prepares to assist the primary health care provider to discuss which initial procedure with the parents?
The nurse prepares to assist the primary health care provider to discuss chemotherapy initial procedure with the parents.
What are reed-sternberg cells?The reed-sternberg cells are those cells that are known as an abnormally large shaped lymphocytes characterized by containing more than one nucleus.
The reed-sternberg cells are diagnostic features for patients with Hodgkin lymphoma and they are also called Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells.
Hodgkin lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic cells of the immune system.
Therefore when the blood analysis of a 5-years old presents with features like reed-sternberg cells, it is a characteristic feature for Hodgkin lymphoma. The chemotherapy procedure should be discussed with the parents to gain their full consent concerning the treatment of their child.
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a client has a diagnosis of hiv and has been admitted to the hospital with an opportunistic infection that originated with the client's normal flora. why did this client most likely become ill from his resident microorganisms?
The client's immune system deteriorated much further who has a diagnosis of hiv and has been admitted to the hospital with an opportunistic infection.
Opportunistic infections (OIs) are diseases that occur more frequently or severely in persons with weakened immune systems than in healthy people. HIV patients with impaired immune systems HIV weakens the immune system. When the immune system is compromised, the body has a more difficult time fighting off OIs.
Despite the fact that all parts of the body exposed to the outside world have typical flora, a healthy person's internal organs and physiological fluids are considered sterile (the lungs being the only exception). These ostensibly "sterile" tissues have been shown to harbor infections in healthy humans on occasion, albeit this is not usually the case.
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the initial negative activity appearing at 15-18msec from stimulation of the upper extremity is thought to be generated by the
The initial negative activity appearing at 15-18msec from stimulation of the upper extremity is thought to be generated by the thalamus.
The upper extremity or arm is a practical unit of the higher body. It consists of 3 sections, the higher arm, forearm, and hand. It extends from the enarthrosis to the fingers and contains thirty bones. It additionally consists of the many nerves, blood vessels (arteries and veins), and muscles.
Thalamus is an oval structure within the middle of your brain. It's called a relay station of all incoming motor (movement) and sensory data — hearing, taste, sight and bit (but not smell) — from your body to your brain
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which time period would the nurse choose to prepare a preschooler for a surgical procedure before the actual surgery
The nurse starts preparing your preschool-aged child three days before the surgery procedure.
What is the procedure before surgery?Stop drinking and eating for a definite period before the time of surgery. The nurse bath or cleans, and possibly shaves the area to be utilized on. Doing various blood tests, X-rays, electrocardiograms, or other policies necessary for surgery.
The nurse does usual tests that your surgeon may ask you to have if you have not had them recently are blood tests such as an absolute blood count (CBC) and kidney, liver, and blood sugar tests. Chest x-ray to check your lungs. ECG (electrocardiogram) is to examine your heart.
So we can conclude that when the surgery is complete, the anesthesiologist back the medications to wake you up.
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dr. garcia believes that everyone passes through the same stages of development in the same order. since this is dr. garcia's view, which of the following is he most likely to disagree with? a. orientation b. nationality c. race/ethnicity d. worldview
Development is a direct result of experience and learning.
Wilhelm Wundt is considered the father of psychology or the father of experimental psychology. This is largely due to the fact that he conducted experiments in his first psychology laboratory. His contemporary William James was called the father of American psychology instead.
Acquired Skills are talents and skills that are often acquired through education or experience. These include soft and hard skills such as communication, or technical skills such as computer programming. Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development suggests that children's intelligence changes as they age. Cognitive development in children is not only related to the acquisition of knowledge children need to construct or develop mental models of their environment.
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a client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. the nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. the nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as
A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck and the nurse develops the care plan with the highest priority diagnosis as ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus.
Radical neck dissection is when all the tissue on the aspect of the neck from the jawbone to the bone is removed. The muscle, nerve, duct gland, and major vessel during this space are all removed. changed radical neck dissection. this can be the foremost common kind of neck dissection.
Mucus is a common temporary nasal obstruction. It will accumulate within the sinus cavities and result in nasal congestion and shrunken air flow. Generally, nasal obstructions caused by mucous secretion are temporary and can flee on their own with time.
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the nurse is planning to teach a patient with newly diagnosed chronic kidney disease (ckd). which information about anemia and ckd should the nurse include?
Chronic renal illness frequently results in anaemia (CKD). With CKD, your kidneys are damaged and unable to filter blood as effectively as they should. Additional medical issues can result from CKD.
What connection exists between CKD and anaemia?Chronic renal illness frequently results in anaemia (CKD). With CKD, your kidneys are damaged and unable to filter blood as well as they should. Your body may become clogged with wastes and fluid as a result of this damage. Additional medical issues can result from CKD.
What are a few symptoms of anaemia in people with CKD?Low energy, fatigue, and a decline in physical function are common anaemia of CKD symptoms, all of which can impair a patient's quality of life in terms of their health.
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the nurse is caring for a client with uremia that has impacted his nutritional status. the nurse should anticipate that this client’s appetite will be the best at what time of the day?
The nurse is caring for a client with uremia that has impacted his nutritional status and she should anticipate that this client’s appetite will be the best in breakfast.
Uremia is a clinical condition related to worsening urinary organ operate. it's characterised by fluid, solution, hormonal, and metabolic abnormalities. azotaemia most typically happens within the setting of chronic and end-stage urinary organ sickness, however may additionally occur as a results of acute urinary organ injury.
Nutritional status has been outlined as a human health condition because it is influenced by the intake and utilization of nutrients. Once our body receives all the nutrients in applicable amounts thus on meet the wants of the body, then we tend to are within the state of excellent nutrition.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of addison's disease and is monitoring the client for signs of addisonian crisis. the nurse should assess the client for which manifestation that would be associated with this crisis?
The client in addisonian crisis may demonstrate any of the signs and symptoms of Addison's disease, but the primary problem is severe abdominal pain
Which symptoms would the nurse assess in a patient who has Addison's disease?A large stressor is most frequently the cause of addison's crisis, a serious reaction to acute adrenal insufficiency that poses a life-threatening threat.The customer in an addisonian crisis may exhibit any of Addison's disease's signs and symptoms, but the main issues are abrupt, profound weakness, excruciating back, leg, and stomach pain, hyperpyrexia followed by hypothermia, peripheral vascular collapse, coma, and renal failure.The remaining choices fail to mention clinical signs connected to addisonian crises. Hypoglycemia can be brought on by Addison's disease's reduced cortisol output.By keeping an eye on blood sugar levels, hypoglycemia can be identified and treated before complications arise.Encouragement of fluid intake is necessary to make up for dehydration.Due to hyperkalemia, potassium intake should be reduced.For this client, Option 3 is not a top priority.To learn more about Addison's disease refer
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the nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child with an ear infection who requires the administration of antibiotic eardrops. the nurse observes the mother administering the eardrops to the child. which observation by the nurse indicates that the mother is performing the procedure correctly?
Elevate the ear that was treated while lying on your side. Holding the dropper over the ear, administer the required amount of drops into the ear canal.
What is the administration of antibiotic ear drops?Drop the medication into the ear canal if you're using the ear drops to treat a middle ear infection. Then, using a pumping motion, gently press the tragus of the ear four times (see the illustration in the medication guide).
To help an adult get the drops to roll into their ear, hold the earlobe up and back. For kids, keep the earlobe down and to the back.
Therefore, This will enable the drops to enter the middle ear through the hole or tube in the eardrum.
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heart attack patients often take a small tablet of nitroglycerine and put it in their mouth, under their tongue, for quick action. this route of administration is
The route of administration of Nitroglycerine for heart attack patients is absorbed sub lingually. It is placed under the tongue or between the cheeks and gums , let it dissolve.
What is Heart attack?Heart attack is also known as Myocardial infarction. A heart attack occurs when the blood flow is reduced or decreased to the heart. This occurs when the flow of blood which brings oxygen to the heart muscle suddenly becomes blocked. It is the life threatening medical emergency.
This is not same as Cardiac arrest. In cardiac arrest, heart suddenly stops beating. A heart attack can cause cardiac arrest. Symptoms of a heart attack include chest and upper body pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, sweatiness, etc.
Several treatment are used for treating Heart attack. In emergency, Nitroglycerin tablets are used which are sublingual in nature placed under the tongue or between cheeks and gums, let it dissolve. It acts a vasodilators and works by relaxing the blood vessels so that heart do not need to work hard.
Thus, the route of administration of Nitroglycerine for heart attack patients is absorbed sub lingually. It is placed under the tongue or between the cheeks and gums , let it dissolve.
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which of the following medications does not treat hypertension?
a) vasoconstrictors
b) calcium channel blockers
c) beta-blockers
d) ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers are the medications that does not treat hypertension.
Calcium channel blockers are medications that will lower blood pressure. They work by preventing calcium from getting into the cells of the guts and arteries. Calcium causes the guts and arteries to squeeze (contract) a lot of powerfully. By interference metallic element, calcium channel blockers permit blood vessels to relax and open.
Hypertension is when blood pressure is too high. Blood pressure is written as 2 numbers. the primary (systolic) range represents the pressure in blood vessels once the heart contracts or beats. The second (diastolic) range represents the pressure within the vessels once the heart rests between beats.
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a nurse in an oncology care unit is reviewing the laboratory test results of several clients scheduled to receive chemotherapy. the nurse determines that the client with which leukocyte count will most likely have the chemotherapy withheld?
The client with 18,000 cells/mm leukocyte count will most likely have the chemotherapy withheld.
What is chemotherapy?
Chemotherapy is a medical treatment that destroys your body's quickly multiplying cells by using strong chemicals. Chemotherapy is the most popular kind of cancer treatment because cancer cells grow and divide far more quickly than the majority of other body cells. There is a a large selection of chemotherapeutic drugs.
Chemotherapy side effects can be excruciating and include mouth sores, headaches, muscle and stomach pain, as well as burning, numbness, and tingling or shooting pains in your hands and feet. Cancer and chemotherapy both have the potential to cause pain.
The cancer is eradicated by chemotherapy (which may also involve radiation and/or surgery), and it doesn't come back.
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describe how your daily food intake and physical activity are related to each other. do you eat more on days that you are more active?
Physical activity elevates the requirement for certain vitamins and minerals. A well-balanced diet will provide enough vitamins and minerals to meet any increased requirement caused by activity.
What is physical activity?Physical activity is defined by WHO as any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that requires energy expenditure.
Food and exercise have an undeniable relationship. Food gives you energy. Exercise expends energy.
However, exercising solely to "burn" the calories you consume can give the impression that there is a direct relationship between the foods you eat and your workouts.
Thus, this way, daily food intake and physical activity are related to each other.
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What is the function of tissue fluid?