A negative HIV test result is not considered accurate immediately after exposure.
If results are negative, a second HIV test should be conducted. When antibodies seroconvert, they start to show up in the blood. With a range of 2 to 10 months, the average time for seroconversion is 2 months. Because of this, a negative HIV test result is rarely regarded as reliable right away after exposure.
Usually, a Western blot test is utilized to confirm an HIV diagnosis. A little blood sample is drawn during the test, and it is used to look for HIV antibodies rather than the HIV virus itself.
A negative Western blot test result for HIV does not necessarily mean that a person is HIV-free. One test's outcomes won't always be purely positive or negative. Due to this, a second test is needed to confirm the results.
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lifting free weights at 90% of your maximum but only a few repetitions at a time, is an example of ... muscular strength training. muscular endurance training. muscular flexibility training. mighty muscular muscles
Lifting free weights at 90% of maximum but only a few reps at a time is an example of muscular strength training.
What does strength training mean and its example?Strength or resistance training includes physical exercise aimed at improving strength and endurance. Often associated with lifting weights. It can also include various training techniques such as bodyweight exercises, isometrics and plyometrics.Strength training can improve your quality of life and improve your ability to perform daily activities. It can also protect joints from injury. Building muscle can also help improve balance and reduce the risk of falls, which can help you stay independent as you age.Examples of strength-building activities are: lift weights, Working with resistance bands, Heavy gardening such as digging and shoveling, climb the stairs, hill walking, go cycling, dance, Push-ups, sit ups, squats.What are the 4 types of muscles training?Research shows that it's important to do all four types of exercise: Endurance, strength, balance and flexibility. Each has different advantages. Doing one method improves your ability to do another, and variety helps reduce boredom and risk of injury.
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you are asked to see mr. bob smith, a 65 y/o retired plumber with hip and knee pain. pmh is negative. after a thorough musculoskeletal examination, your correct diagnosis is osteoarthritis. you have likely also detected that mr. smith has:
It is detected that Mr. smith has Heberden's nodes.
What is Heberden's nodes?Heberden's nodes are small, pea-sized lumps of bone that occur in the joint closest to the tip of the finger, also called the distal interphalangeal joint. Heberden's nodes are a symptom of osteoarthritis (OA) of the hands.
Osteoarthritis is the main cause of Heberden's nodes. It is a form of arthritis that occurs when the tissue that covers the ends of bones, called cartilage, wears away. Cartilage can break down from slow wear and tear over time or if you have joint damage.
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a child is scheduled to receive inactivated poliovirus vaccine (ipv), and the nurse who is preparing to administer the vaccine reviews the child's record. the nurse questions the administration of ipv if which is documented in the child's record?
The administration of ipv if history of an anaphylactic reaction to neomycin is documented in the child's record history of an anaphylactic reaction to neomycin.
The inactivated poliovirus vaccine contains neomycin (IPV). IPV is not recommended if you have ever had an adverse reaction to neomycin. Treatment is still possible even if the illness is minor, like the common cold. Additionally, if you have a history of recurrent respiratory diseases, getting vaccinated is not against the law. It is still acceptable to receive the immunization even if there is a local reaction to it.
Your immune system releases a barrage of chemicals during anaphylaxis that can put you into shock, lower your blood pressure, and constrict your airways, making it difficult for you to breathe. A skin rash, a quick, weak pulse, nausea, and vomiting are some of the warning signs and symptoms.
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which client would the nurse recognize as having the greatest risk for complications during the intraoperative or postoperative period?
The 35-year-old client with non-insulin dependent diabetes the nurse recognizes as having the greatest risk for complications during the intraoperative or postoperative period.
A diabetic patient is more likely to experience difficulties during or after surgery. Hypoglycemia can occur during anesthesia, as a result of insufficient carbohydrate consumption, or as a result of using too much insulin after surgery. Infection risks and the rate of wound healing can both be accelerated by hyperglycemia. Smokers are urged to give up between four and eight weeks before surgery. Anesthesia side effects might be made more likely by recent illicit drug usage. Healthy elderly people are not more at danger.
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the nurse is teaching a health class in the local public health center about precautions to prevent the spread of influenza. what instructions should the nurse provide as the most important measure to prevent the spread of influenza?
Recommendations.The most crucial defense against seasonal influenza illness is yearly immunization.
What is the most effective prevention strategy for seasonal influenza?Annual vaccination is the most important measure to prevent seasonal influenza infection.Healthy Practices to Prevent the Flu.Avoid making eye contact.Avoid being in close proximity to sick people.When you are sick, stay at home.Put your nose and mouth covered.sanitize your hands .Do not touch your lips, nose, or eyes.Adopt additional healthy behaviors. One of the most efficient ways to prevent seasonal influenza and its consequences, as well as to lower influenza-related hospitalization and death, is seasonal influenza vaccination (SIV). The flu shot can lower the number of flu-related hospitalizations, doctor visits, and absences from work and school due to the virus.Every year, the CDC advises that anyone aged 6 months and older get vaccinated against the flu.The first and most effective strategy to prevent influenza is to receive an annual flu shot.To learn more about influenza refer
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a nurse cares for a client with a bmi of 36 kg/m2 and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease. the client asks the nurse if he is a candidate for bariatric surgery. how should the nurse respond to the client?
The nurse can respond that the BMI and condition of the patient meets the criteria for a bariatric surgery.
What is a bariatric surgery?Bariatric surgery is performed for the patient to lose weight, this is achieved by changing the digestive system by making a gastroesophageal reduction. This causes the caloric intake to decrease since less will be consumed than it was before, this without altering the appetite.
This procedure is performed when diet and exercise are not effective for weight loss. This is how morbidity and mortality are prevented.
Among the indications is to be between 18-60 years old, a BMI of 35-40 kg/m² associated with a disease associated with worsening comorbidity, obesity over 5 years, among others.
Therefore, we can confirm that the nurse can respond that the BMI and condition of the patient meets the criteria for a bariatric surgery.
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the nurse is teaching a client who was admitted to the hospital with acute hepatic encephalopathy and ascites about an appropriate diet. the nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the client chooses which food choice from the menu?
When a client picks pancakes with butter, honey, and orange juice, the nurse knows the lesson was successful.
An illness of the neurological system called hepatic encephalopathy is brought on by severe liver disease. Inefficient liver function causes poisons to accumulate in the blood. These poisons can reach the brain and have an impact on cognitive function. Hepatic encephalopathy patients can appear bewildered.
Fluid builds up in your abdomen's cavities when you have ascites. Your lungs, kidneys, and other organs may be impacted as a result of fluid buildup in the abdomen. Abdominal discomfort, swelling, nausea, vomiting, and other problems are brought on by ascites.
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a nurse is providing in-home hospice care to a terminally ill client. the client experiences a medical crisis requiring monitoring and medication administration. which level of hospice care would the nurse implement?
Level of hospice care given to a terminally ill client with medical crisis that requires monitoring and medication administration is Continuous care.
How many levels of hospice care?There are four levels of hospice care according to Medicare and they include; Routine hospice care, general inpatient care, continuous care and respite care.
When the patient receives hospice care at home or wherever they are it is known as routine hospice care. In general inpatient care, the patient becomes eligible for more intensive care due to progressive illness. Continuous care is provided when a medical crisis arises and patient is at risk of hospitalization. Respite care relieves the primary caregiver temporarily.
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the nurse is caring for a client with secondary spontaneous pneumothorax. the client develops sudden shortness of breath and chest pain with a tracheal shift after harsh coughing. what should the nurse do next?
A medical emergency known as a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (SSP) occurs when a lung collapses as a result of an existing chronic lung condition.
What client with secondary spontaneous pneumothorax?Due to underlying chest conditions, secondary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs. In over 70% of cases, patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) report seeing them most frequently.
During the same hospital stay, patients often have a permanent surgery to avoid recurrence.
Therefore, Options for treatment include observation, chest tube insertion, needle aspiration, nonsurgical repair, and surgery. To hasten the enlargement of your lungs and air absorption, you can receive oxygen therapy.
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the critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery pressure monitoring system. the nurse is aware that pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is used to assess left ventricular function (cardiac output). what else are pulmonary artery pressure monitoring systems used for?
To assess the patient's response to fluid and drug administration.
Monitors for pulmonary artery pressure
The technology enables you and your office to assess the patient's heart rate and pulmonary artery pressure in order to better understand the progression of their heart failure and their treatment requirements.
A pressure sensor is inserted using a catheter into the artery that transports blood from the heart to the lungs in order to measure pulmonary artery pressure. This can aid in the diagnosis of clots, heart failure, and other cardiovascular issues. The main arteries emerging from the right ventricle of the heart are called pulmonary arteries.
One of the most frequent causes of pulmonary hypertension is assumed to be issues with the left side of the heart. These include issues with the mitral valve, the left ventricle, and the aortic valve.
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a 52-year-old client is scheduled for diagnostic testing to address prolonged signs and symptoms of genitourinary dysfunction. what signs and symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease? select all that apply.
Pain, gastrointestinal problems, & changes in voiding patterns are the symptoms and signs of urinary tract illness that are most indicative.
Microorganisms, mostly bacteria, that enter the urethra & bladder and produce inflammation and infection are the primary cause of urinary tract infections. Although urethral and bladder infections are the most frequent locations for UTIs, germs can also go up the ureters & infect your kidneys.
The second most typical form of infection in the body is urinary tract infection or UTI. If you experience: Pain or burning during urinating, you may have a UTI. fever, exhaustion, or unsteadiness
Escherichia coli is the bacterium most frequently discovered to cause UTIs (E. coli). UTIs can be brought on by other bacteria, but E. coli is often to blame 90% of the time.
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a client is seen in the primary health care provider's office for complaints of wrist pain. a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome is made. in explaining this disorder to the client, the nurse states that it is caused by compression of which nerve?
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed.
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) occurs when the median nerve, which runs from the forearm into the palm of the hand, is pinched or compressed at the wrist.
The carpal tunnel, a small, stiff passageway made of ligament and bones at the base of the hand, houses the median nerve and the tendons that bend the fingers. The median nerve senses the index, middle, and part of the ring fingers, as well as the palm side of the thumb (although not the little finger).
Due to edema or thickening caused by inflamed tendon lining, the tunnel can occasionally become smaller and the median nerve can become compressed. As a result, the hand and wrist may become numb, weak, or even painful (some people may feel pain in the forearm and arm).
CTS is the most common and well-known type of entrapment neuropathy, in which a peripheral nerve of the body is pushed against or crushed.
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FLAG
A nurse is converting a toddler's weight from lb to kg. If the toddler weighs 20 lb 8 oz, what is the toddler's weight in kg? (Round the answer to the
nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
.
the nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock in an critical care unit and the family is asking about the intra-aortic balloon pump (iabp). what will the nurse explain is the premise of using iabp?
The premise of using Iabp is to reduce the workload of the heart during the shock period.
The IABP decreases the workload of the heart by reducing left ventricular afterload. Additionally, it improves coronary artery blood flow by increasing coronary artery perfusion pressure.
The IABP does not perform the work of the heart. The IABP does not directly circulate oxygen or keep the kidneys working.
To provide the heart with oxygen, blood flows into coronary arteries. Your coronary arteries can receive blood more freely thanks to an IABP. Each time your heart contracts, it helps the heart pump more blood.
Severe peripheral vascular disease, aortic regurgitation, dissecting, or aneurysm are all contraindications to IABP. IABP's potential advantages and drawbacks must be examined carefully.
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organizations of physicians, and other health care professionals that provide a wide range of services to subscribers on a prepaid basis are known as: a. preferred provider organizations (ppos) b. major medical plans c. health maintenance organizations (hmos) d. integrated medical practices
They are known as Preferred provider organisations (PPOs).
For both individuals and families, a preferred provider organization (PPO) is a well-liked health insurance option. PPOs involve networks of health insurance providers and contracted medical personnel. Preferred providers are hospitals and doctors who offer services to the insurer's plan policyholders at discounted prices.
Participants in the plan are granted coverage for out-of-network healthcare providers in addition to receiving the maximum PPO benefit when they see in-network healthcare providers.
A managed-care health insurance plan is a particular kind of preferred provider organization.
PPO healthcare providers are referred to as preferred providers.
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what refers to routine physical examinations, immunizations, prenatal care, dental checkups, screening for heart disease and cancer, and other services intended to ensure good health and to minimize the effects of illness if it occurs?
Preventive care aids in the early detection and prevention of significant illnesses and medical issues.
What is preventive health care?Prophylaxis, often known as preventive healthcare, refers to actions made to stave off disease. Disease and disability are dynamic processes that start before people are aware they are affected. They are influenced by environmental variables, genetic predisposition, disease agents, and lifestyle choices.
Preventive care aids in the early detection and prevention of significant illnesses and medical issues. Preventive care includes many procedures and screenings, such as yearly physicals, vaccines, and flu injections. This is often referred to as routine care.
Given the rise in chronic disease prevalence and related deaths worldwide, preventive healthcare is especially crucial. There are numerous approaches to disease prevention. One of them is the dissemination of information to prevent teen smoking.
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all of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products except:_____.
A. Measles (rubeola) vaccine
B. German measles (rubella) vaccine
C. Mumps vaccine
D. Polio vaccine
The following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products except: Measles (rubeola) vaccine.
Donor deferral way that an person isn't eligible to donate based totally at the modern requirements. This waiting period is vital to defend the fitness and protection of both the donor and the affected person who receives the donated blood.
Donors whose personal health is probably affected by donating (category 1) Donors with risk of a transmitting transfusion transmissible infections (class 2) Donors with a circumstance where transmissibility by using blood is unknown or donors with diseases or a circumstance not appropriate for blood donation (class three)
Temporary donor deferral is used to guard recipients of blood from feasible infectious disorder publicity or is used to guard donors if health status measures including hematocrit or blood strain are outside ideal values.
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the supervisor is performing a chart review. the nurse can be held legally liable for which documentation?
Answer: Any and all documentation that is listed under the nurses name
appendicitis and poisoning are examples of:
Appendicitis and poisoning are examples of non-communicable diseases.
Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), also known as chronic diseases, are caused by a combination of genetic, physiological, environmental, and behavioral factors and typically last a long time.
In the lower right side of the belly, the appendix is a small organ that is connected to the large intestine. Appendicitis is the name given to it when it gets infected.
When various drugs, chemicals, venoms, or gases are swallowed, inhaled, touched, or injected, they can cause injury or death. Drugs and carbon monoxide, for example, are among the many substances that are poisonous only at higher concentrations or dosages. Thus, Appendicitis and poisoning are not contagious.
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one way to check the validity of qualitative research findings is to employ the technique of methods triangulation, or using two different methods to address the same research question
a. true
b. false
It is true that one way to check the validity of qualitative research findings is to employ the technique of methods triangulation, or using two different methods to address the same research question.
Qualitative research are often outlined because the study of the character of phenomena and is very acceptable for respondent queries of why one thing is (not) discovered, assessing advanced multi-component interventions, and absorption on intervention improvement.
Triangulation is a technique to research results of constant study victimization totally different strategies of knowledge assortment. it's used for 3 main purposes: to boost validity, to form a additional in-depth image of an exploration drawback, and to interrogate alternative ways of understanding an exploration drawback.
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a doctor orders 0.074 gg of chlorpromazine, which is used to treat schizophrenia. part a if the stock solution is 2.5 %(m/v)%(m/v) , how many milliliters are administered to the patient? express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.
Based on the mass concentration of the stock solution and the mass of the drug prescribed, the volume of the drug required is 3.0 mL.
What is the volume of chlorpromazine, that is required to treat schizophrenia given the prescription of the doctor?The volume of chlorpromazine, that is required to treat schizophrenia given the prescription of the doctor is calculated as follows:
The concentration of the stock chlorpromazine solution = 2.5 %(m/v)%(m/v)
This means that there are 2.5 grams of chlorpromazine per 100 ml of solution = 2.5 g/100 mL solution
Mass concentration of drug solution = 0.025 g drug/ml solution
mass of drug = 0.074 g
The volume of drug required = mass of drug / mass concentration
Volume of drug required = 0.074 / 0.025
Volume of drug required = 3.0 mL
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the nurse is caring for a critically ill client who informs the nurse that there is a conflict between the client's spiritual beliefs and a proposed health option. which question does the nurse ask to begin a conversation about the conflict that the client is experiencing?
The nurse needs to ask a question like "Would you like to talk to someone to help you make a conscious decision?" to begin a conversation about the conflict that the client is experiencing between the client's spiritual beliefs and a proposed health option.
How do you apply some nursing process?
Nursing, as a profession is very important to deliver quality care and rising safety for patients. The nurse has got to assess, diagnose, plan, implement findings, and analysis is finished to confirm the specified outcome has been met.
Asking a patient if he/she would be willing to possess a oral communication with somebody that may facilitate reach a choice, would reveal the subsequently to the nurse:
How the current scenario interferes with the patient's religious or spiritual beliefs. How the patient sees the proposed option with his/her spiritual belief. Knowing what the patient thinks of the disadvantages of the proposed health option according to his/her spiritual beliefs, would give the nurse insights on how to handle the situation professionally.In summary, the nurse must raise a matter like "would you prefer to speak to somebody to assist you evaluate on the best option?" Therefore on assist the patient is getting enough information to reach a conclusion.
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what intervention should the nurse teach the client to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples?
The nurse should teach the client to splint the area when engaging in activity to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples.
What are tissues?Tissue is described as a group of cells that have similar structure and that function together as a unit.
There are four basic tissue types defined by their morphology and function and they include:
epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissueNurses assist patients to recover when they undergosurgery.
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The nurse is caring for the following clients. Which client is at highest risk for a depressed respiratory system?.
The question above isn't complete, as there are no options for us to choose from. That being said, generally, the client that is at the highest risk for a depressed respiratory system is the client that's taking opioids for cancer pain.
There are many kinds of medications that, while doing their job, affect the function of the respiratory system. That's why the nurse needs to monitor each medication taken by each client under their care.
The opioid is a medication generally used to treat moderate to severe pain, especially for cancer patients. There are several side effects of opioids, a few of which are:
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a patient has been scheduled for cardioversion in the treatment of a tachyarrhythmia but is unclear about the particulars of the procedure after signing the necessary informed consent. how can the nurse best explain this procedure to the patient?
the nurse best explain this procedure of cardioversion in the treatment of a tachyarrhythmia to the patient by saying "Cardioversion will essentially 'reset' the cells in your heart that control the electrical activity."
Cardioversion is a medical procedure that uses brief, low-energy shocks to reestablish a normal heart rhythm. It is used to treat certain types of irregular heartbeats (arrhythmias), such as atrial fibrillation. Medication is sometimes used to perform cardioversion. An electrical cardioversion, also known as a cardioversion, is a procedure used to treat an abnormally fast heart rhythm. Atrial fibrillation is the most commonly treated arrhythmia.
Tachyarrhythmias, which are abnormal heart rhythms with a ventricular rate of 100 or more beats per minute, are frequently symptomatic and frequently cause patients to seek treatment at their provider's office or the emergency department.
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Which of the following is not a function of fat in the human body?
1) cushions the internal organs from physical shock
2) carries the water-soluble nutrients
3) protects the body from extreme cold temperatures
4) provides the major material from which cell membranes are made
Answer:
2) Carries the water soluble nutrients
Explanation:
Water soluble nutrients can't dissolve in fat so they cannot be carried by fat in the human body
a woman is only 30 weeks pregnant, but the physician determines that the fetus must be delivered for the safety of the mother. the physician orders a glucocorticosteroid injection to be given. why does the physician order this injection?
The physician order this injection to promote the formation of surfactant in the foetal lungs.
What is glucocorticoid steroid?Glucocorticoids are a class of corticosteroids, which are a class of steroid hormones. Glucocorticoids are corticosteroids that bind to the glucocorticoid receptor, which is present in almost all vertebrate animal cells.
Glucocorticoids are cholesterol-derived steroid hormones synthesized and secreted by the adrenal glands. They are anti-inflammatory in all tissues and regulate metabolism in muscles, fat, liver and bones. Glucocorticoids also affect vascular tone and mood, behaviour and sleep-wake cycles in the brain.
Glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis in the liver, while in skeletal muscle and white adipose tissue they reduce glucose absorption and utilization by opposing the insulin response.
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the pregnant client tells the nurse she has a history of mitral valve stenosis as a sequela of rheumatic fever. the nurse plans to closely monitor the client based on the understanding that which physiologic change in pregnancy increases this client's risk for complications?
The physiologic change in pregnancy that increases this client's risk for complications is Increased blood volume.
What is rheumatic fever?Rheumatic fever is defined as the type of fever that occurs due to inadequate treatment of streptococcus infection that affects the heart, blood vessels and joints.
In pregnancy, the general physiology of an individual changes which include an increase in blood and fluid volume.
This occurs due to the blood supplements given to the pregnant woman for the proper development of the foetus.
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a patient is hospitalized with possible syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (siadh). the patient is confused and reports a headache, muscle cramps, and twitching. the nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include:
The nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include decreased serum sodium.
Why decrease in serum sodium takes place in SIADH patient?When water is retained, serum sodium falls below normal, causing the clinical symptoms described by the patient. Haematocrit decreases due to dilution due to water retention. Urine is more concentrated and has a higher specific gravity. Serum chloride concentrations usually decrease with sodium levels.
urine has a lot of waste products and not a lot of water. Because your body doesn't excrete the normal amount of water in your urine, you have too much water in your blood. It dilutes many substances in your blood, such as sodium (salt).
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the nurse teaches a client receiving an inhaled corticosteroid about the possibility of developing oral thrush. which action(s) would the nurse include in the teaching plan as a way to reduce this risk? select all that apply.
The nurse will include the following in her teaching plan as a way to reduce this risk:
Performing strict oral hygiene Cleaning the inhaler per package instructionsUsing proper technique when administering the dose.Using inhaled corticosteroids can make you more likely to have thrush, a mouth illness caused by a fungus. This results from chronic illnesses like asthma and COPD not eliciting an immunological response. It might also be because of poor oral hygiene.
You can lessen your risk of developing thrush by brushing your teeth or rinsing your mouth after using your inhaler. Thrush can be treated with oral or topical medications if it does manifest.
Though thrush is uncommon, inhaled corticosteroids can raise your risk of developing it. Using your inhaler as needed is crucial to control your chronic respiratory illness. Discuss underlying medical concerns with your healthcare professional if you suffer thrush regularly.
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