Wet to moist dressing is best for nurse to use first.
What is moist dressing?
With this type of dressing, a wet (or moist) gauze dressing is put on your wound and allowed to dry. Wound drainage and dead tissue can be removed when you take off the old dressing. A moist wound environment has several benefits that result in faster and better quality of healing. It facilitates autolytic debridement, reduces pain, reduces scarring, activates collagen synthesis, facilitates and promotes keratinocyte migration over the wound surface, and supports the presence and function of nutrients, growth factors, and other soluble mediators in the wound microenvironment.
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a client presents to the emergency department confused and disoriented after being pulled out of a house fire. the client is mumbling incoherently. which statement by the nurse exemplifies therapeutic communication?
A client presents to the emergency department confused and disoriented after being pulled out of a house fire and the client is mumbling incoherently therefore the statement by the nurse which exemplifies therapeutic communication is "Things will look better tomorrow after a good night's sleep."
Who is a Nurse?This is referred tom as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complication.
Therapeutic communication on the other hand is an exchange between the patient and provider using verbal and non-verbal methods which helps the patient overcome some form of emotional or psychological distress.
In the fire incident case, the client was very distressed hence his mumbling incoherently and the right word to say is "Things will look better tomorrow after a good night's sleep" as it helps to calm every form of pressure.
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a client with the diagnosis of primary hypertension is started on a regimen of hydrochlorothiazide. which information will the nurse include when providing instructions regarding this medication?
The nurse given information is an antihypertensive medication will likely be required for the remainder of life.
What is hypertension?
A blood pressure reading of 140/90 or greater. The majority of the time, hypertension goes unnoticed. It can damage the arteries and raise the risk of stroke, heart attack, kidney failure, and blindness. also known as high blood pressure.
What is diagnosis?
The process of determining an illness, condition, or injury based on its indications and symptoms. To aid with the diagnosis, tests like blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be utilized together with a physical examination and health history.
Therefore, the nurse given information is an antihypertensive medication will likely be required for the remainder of life.
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the client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find? pain after voiding suprapubic pain perineal pain costovertebral angle tenderness
Clinical manifestation in acute pyelonephritis is Costovertebal angle tenderness.
Describe acute pyelonephritis.
One of the most prevalent kidney illnesses is acute pyelonephritis, which is caused by a bacterial infection that causes kidney inflammation. Pyelonephritis is a side effect of an ascending UTI that travels from the bladder to the kidneys and their collecting systems.
Flank pain, fever, new or distinct myalgia or flu-like symptoms, costovertebal angle tenderness, nausea, or vomiting are the hallmarks of acute pyelonephritis, which frequently coexists with the essential signs and symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (e.g., frequency, urgency, and dysuria). The presence of bladder infection or distention is suggested by suprapubic pain. Pain after voiding might be brought on by urethral trauma and irritation of the bladder neck. Male clients with prostatitis or prostate cancer frequently complain of peritoneal pain.
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the nurse is collecting data on a client who is pregnant with twins. which signs would alert the nurse to potential problems specifically related to the twin pregnancy? select all that apply.
Preterm labour, gestational hypertension, maternal anaemia, birth abnormalities, miscarriage, TTTS, and other difficulties are the most typical problems related to twin pregnancies.
What is twin pregnancy?
There are two fetuses in the uterus when a woman is pregnant with twins. This is a rare phenomenon that may be brought on by genetic predispositions, fertility treatments, or other elements.
preterm delivery
Nearly all higher-order multiples and more than 60% of twins are preterm (born before 37 weeks). Early birth is more likely to occur when there are more fetuses in a pregnancy. Babies who are prematurely born are born before their bodies and organ systems are fully developed. These newborns frequently have low birthweights (less than 2,500 grammes or 5.5 pounds), are frequently petite, and may require assistance with breathing, feeding, fighting infection, and maintaining body temperature.
pregnancy-related hypertension
Pregnancy-related high blood pressure is more than twice as likely to occur in women who are carrying multiple fetuses. Additionally, it can make placental abruption more likely (early detachment of the placenta).
Anemia
In comparison to a single birth, anaemia is more than twice as likely in multiple pregnancies.
birth flaws
The chance of congenital (existing at birth) abnormalities, such as cardiac, gastrointestinal, and neural tube problems (such as spina bifida), is around double in babies of multiple births.
Miscarriage
It is more likely in multiple pregnancies that a condition known as the vanishing twin syndrome will occur, in which more than one fetus is detected but disappears (or is miscarried), typically in the first trimester . Even in the later trimesters, there is a higher risk of miscarriage.
Transfusion syndrome between twins
The placenta disorder known as twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) only affects identical twins who share a placenta. Blood arteries in the placenta connect and direct blood flow from one foetus to the other. With a shared placenta, it happens in 15% of twins.
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Ken has schizophrenia, and his major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy. Which medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms?.
Ken has schizophrenia ,In such problem of major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy the medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms is antidepressants.
What is antidepressants?Antidepressants is a type of pharmaceutical medicine used for treating or curing depression or anxiety.
Apathy:It is the condition where you lack in interestIt just that you don't get motivation of doing any thing or just don't care about anything. To cure apathy one should give himself compassion and understanding with empathy.Hence, In such problem of major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy the medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms is antidepressants.
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ken has schizophrenia, and his major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy. which medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms?
For the treatment of apathy syndrome Aripiprazole can be used.
Definition of schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is considered as dangerous mental condition in which people have an aberrant interpretation of reality. Schizophrenia causes a good combination of hallucinations, delusions, and profoundly abnormal thoughts and actions that usually interfere with daily life and can lead to disability.
Symptoms of schizophrenia:
Hallucinations
Thinking that is dis-orgazised specially in (language).
Extremely chaotic and aberrant motor activity
Symptoms of the diseases alter in nature and severity throughout time, including periods of exacerbation and remission. Some of the symptoms of diseases may be present at all times.
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a nurse is teaching a group of adults on the risks of obesity on neurological health. what statement will the nurse include in the teaching regarding obesity and the risk for developing alzheimer disease?
"Individuals with obesity are twice as likely to develop Alzheimer disease than those who do not have obesity."
Obesity-related increases in FFA levels result in decreased neurotrophic support and increased neurodegeneration in peripheral nerves. DRG neurons, C-fiber cutaneous nerve endings, and the blood-nerve barrier are all directly damaged by long-chain fatty acids and inflammatory mediators.
Obesity can result in a clear and distinct reduction in brain size without any other factors. Obese people have a 2.4 percent decrease in brain parenchymal volume compared to those with a normal BMI.
Alzheimer's disease is thought to be caused by an abnormal protein buildup in and around brain cells. Amyloid is one of the proteins involved, and deposits of it form plaques around brain cells. Tau is the other protein, and deposits of it form tangles within brain cells.
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a client is admitted for further testing to confirm sarcoidosis. which diagnostic test provides definitive information that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?
Diagnostic tests performed to confirm sarcoidosis in health services include blood tests, pulmonary function tests, and CT scans or MRI examinations.
What is sarcoidosis?Sarcoidosis is a disease characterized by the growth of body cells that experience inflammation. This condition generally affects the lungs and lymph nodes, but can also occur in the eyes, skin, or heart.
Sarcoidosis occurs when the body's immune system attacks foreign substances excessively. This condition makes the body's cells form lumps or granulomas.
Over time, granulomas can form scar tissue (fibrosis). If not treated immediately, the scar tissue is at risk of causing interference with organ function.
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a nurse is caring for a 16-year-old male client who needs an appendectomy. his parents are not present at the hospital. prior to the surgery, the nurse needs to ensure that informed consent is obtained. which situations allows the healthcare provider to obtain an informed consent from an adolescent?
The situation which allows the healthcare provider to obtain an informed consent from an adolescent is the adolescent has declared himself emancipated.
Being emancipated is is once a child (a minor) lawfully gets a number of the rights of adults before reaching the age of eighteen. As an example, language contracts, selecting wherever to measure, and enrolling in class.
An appendectomy, conjointly termed extirpation, may be a surgical treatment during which the process is removed. Excision is generally performed as associate pressing or process to treat difficult acute rubor. It is also performed laparoscopically or as an open operation.
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Which action would the nurse take first after noting a flat line a client cardiac monitor
A cardiac activity monitor is a tool that you can use to monitor your heart's electrical activity (ECG). The size of this gadget is comparable to a pager. It captures the rhythm and beat of your heart.
What flat line, a client cardiac monitor?A bedside monitor is a gadget that resembles a television or computer monitor that shows vital physiological activities. The number of body functions to be tracked is decided by the doctor and nurse. The wires that connect the monitor are called leads.
Therefore, When symptoms that occur less frequently than daily require long-term monitoring, cardiac event monitors are employed.
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a prescription has just been received for a 72-year-old client with gastrointestinal hemorrhage to have two blood transfusions. the registered nurse caring for the client is a pediatric nurse temporarily assigned to the unit who has never administered blood before. the best action of the charge nurse is to:
Attend a school board meeting to advocate for classes teaching children seat belt safety.
Pediatric nursing is a part of the nursing profession, mainly revolving around the care of neonates and children up to youth. The word, pediatrics, comes from the Greek phrases media and strike. Pediatrics is the British/Australian spelling, while pediatrics is the yank spelling.
Pediatric nurses are registered nurses who specialize in being concerned for patients from birth through adolescence. They ought to have deep expertise in toddler growth and development as illnesses and conditions in kids often present and are dealt with otherwise than in adults.
Life as a pediatric nurse is a bodily and emotionally disturbing profession. It calls for big ranges of empathy, and the capability to lift and battle everything from wriggling children to the heavy testing gadget.
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the presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for cap. which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition? serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dl. glomerular filtration rate (gfr) of 100 ml/min. blood urea nitrogen (bun)-to-creatinine ratio (bun:cr) >20. bun of 18 mg/dl.
The blood urea nitrogen-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) of more than 20 is the first test result that would alert a nurse to this problem. Therefore, the answer that you should select is C.
What is the BUN/Cr ratio?The blood urea nitrogen level and the serum creatinine level are the two serum laboratory measurements that are used to calculate the BUN-to-creatinine ratio. This ratio is also known as the blood urea nitrogen:creatinine ratio. This is used to determine whether or not the kidneys are functioning properly.
A healthy adult should have a BUN:Cr ratio that is not greater than 15 (or less than 15). The condition known as prerenal azotemia is brought on by hypoperfusion of the kidneys as a result of something other than renal disease. After a period of time, the body will generate blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing molecules that are higher than what is considered normal.
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which of the following is a second-generation antihistamine that is preferred for use in a pregnant patient
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that is preferred for use in a pregnant patient.
Hay fever and other allergies are treated with loratadine to temporarily reduce their symptoms. These signs consist of sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes, nose, or throat. The itching and redness brought on by hives are also treated with loratadine. A drug used to treat allergies is loratadine, which is marketed under the trade names Claritin and others. Hives and allergic rhinitis are examples of this. The decongestant pseudoephedrine is also a component of loratadine, which is sold together as loratadine/pseudoephedrine. It is ingested orally. Do not use the pills or capsules in children under the age of 6 unless a doctor has prescribed them. Avoid giving liquid or chewable tablets to children under the age of 2 unless your doctor specifically instructs you to.
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during neighborhood scans, a nurse working in a community outreach program has identified an individual staying in a local shelter. the person has not engaged with the program. during the day, the client can be observed sweeping the pavement in a particular alley with a broom. there is no obvious purpose to the behavior. the individual is dressed in winter clothing even though it is summer. the client mutters expressions that are audible but cannot be understood. based on the observations, which disorder does the nurse consider?
Based on the observations Schizotypal personality disorder is the disorder the nurse considers.
What characterises a schizotypal person?
Peculiar, quirky, or strange ways of thinking, believing, or doing. ideas that are suspicious or paranoid, and persistent uncertainty about the loyalty of others. Belief in superstitions or unique abilities like mental telepathy. unusual perceptions, like feeling the presence of someone who isn't there or experiencing illusions.
What causes schizotypal personality disorder?
Brain damage, including brain malfunction. Including instances of abuse or neglect in childhood being raised by a parent who is distant or chilly. Illness or injury before or during pregnancy. a history of psychotic outbursts or delusionary spells.
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a patient admitted with electrolyte imbalance has carpopedal spasm, ecg changes, and a positive chvostek sign. what deficit does the nurse suspect the patient has? magnesium phosphorus sodium calcium
The nurse suspect the defictient of Calcium in the patients.
What causes electrolyte imbalance?
The main causes of electrolyte abnormalities include prolonged vomiting, diarrhea, or sweating, which result in a loss of body fluids. They might also appear as a result of burn-related fluid loss. Additionally, electrolyte problems can be brought on by several drugs.
fluids intravenously and replacing electrolytes A Dietary modifications can help to address minor electrolyte imbalances. For instance, eating a meal high in potassium if your blood potassium levels are low, or consuming less water if your blood sodium levels are low, are two examples.
Your body's abilities to coagulate blood, contract muscles, maintain acid balance, and regulate fluids can all be affected by a low level of electrolytes. Electrolytes aid in the regulation of your heartbeat because your heart is a muscle.
Therefore, Option D is correct.
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Which of the following may be a source of ignition when rescuing people who are trapped in a car that has stopped off the roadway in a field of dried grass?
catalytic converter
When saving people who are stuck in a car that has stopped off the road in a field of dried grass, the catalytic converter can be a source of ignition.
What functions do catalytic converters have?In essence, a catalytic converter filters out and burns hazardous byproducts found in exhaust gases. Additionally, a catalytic converter not only reduces hazardous emissions but also increases car's efficiency.
Part of the exhaust system are catalytic converters. They are often closer to the engine and are situated between the engine and the muffler. This enables them to swiftly warm up to the high temperatures where they are most useful.
Catalytic converters are standard equipment on all contemporary internal combustion engines. Very old autos lack catalytic converters because they have been needed on new cars since 1975. Since electric cars lack an exhaust system, they don't require a catalytic converter.
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this part of the middle ear vibrates and stimulates the bones of the ossicles when it perceives sounds waves.
Incoming sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate, and these vibrations are then sent to three small bones in the middle ear.
What is Eardrum?
The tympanic membrane, also referred to as the eardrum, is a thin layer of skin that is tightly stretched inside the ear like a drum. In response to sound waves, the eardrum, which divides the middle ear from the outer ear, vibrates.
The eardrum is a component of the intricate system responsible for hearing. Additionally, it shields the middle ear from dirt and germs.
An infection can occasionally burst the eardrum. Hearing loss, ear pain, itching, and fluid pouring from the ear are all signs of an eardrum rupture. Ruptured eardrums typically recover on their own.
The middle layer, inner layer, and outer layer make up the eardrum. The eardrum's flexibility and rigidity are provided by the fibres in the intermediate layer. The eardrum is held in place by cartilage.
The eardrum, which resembles a flattened cone with its tip pointing inward toward the middle ear, covers the end of the external ear canal. It is about the size of a dime, transparent, and clear. 1
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the parent of an adolescent who is going to be a foreign exchange student asks the nurse why the child must have a tetanus toxoid immunization. the nurse provides which information?
The parent of an adolescent who is going to be a foreign exchange student, for providing child with tetanus toxoid immunization, nurse gives information as long lasting active immunity.
Tetanus is prevented using tetanus toxoid. Tetanus is a fatal disease that causes convulsions (seizures) and violent muscular spasms that can be powerful enough to cause spine-related bone fractures. Tetanus causes death in 30 to 40 percent of cases. Immunization against tetanus is indicated for all neonates 6 to 8 weeks of age and older, all children, and all adults. Immunization against tetanus contains first of a series of either 3 or 4 shots, depending on which type of tetanus toxoid you receive. Additionally, you must receive a booster shot every ten years for the remainder of your life. Additionally, if it has been longer than five years since your last booster, you might require an emergency booster injection if your wound is filthy or difficult to treat. Two-thirds of all tetanus cases in recent years have involved people 50 years of age and older. A tetanus infection in the past does not make you immune to tetanus in the future.
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the parent of a 6-year-old calls the nurse and reports that the child was playing outside in the snow and the child's feet now appear red and swollen. what is the best response by the nurse?
Place the child's feet in warm water immediately is the best response by the nurse.
Why does feet appear red and swollen after coming from cold regions?
Small blood vessels close to your skin's surface may constrict in cold conditions. These tiny vessels could enlarge too soon once you warm up. This could result in blood leaking into the adjacent tissue and Edema. The discomfort is then brought on by the swelling irritating the nearby nerves.
The cause of this is unknown to doctors, however it may be connected to an odd response to exposure to cold and rewarming.
Does ice cause skin damage?
Ice burns or frostbite are terms used to describe skin damage brought on by extremely cold temperatures. Ice burns can result from prolonged exposure to freezing temperatures or coming into contact with something very cold, like ice cubes or an ice pack.
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the nurse is providing care to a child with acute renal failure. what assessment would be a priority for the nurse to determine if this child is developing hyperkalemia?
The nurse is providing care to a child with acute renal failure. Pulse rate & rhythm would be a priority for the nurse to determine if this child is developing hyperkalemia.
Hyperkalemia occurs when the potassium levels rise above standard laboratory values. Although it varies among laboratories, a typical potassium range is generally between 3.5 and 5 mEq/l (3.5 and 5 mmol/l). When the potassium levels rise, the youngster will suffer symptoms such as a weak, irregular pulse, muscle weakness and abdominal cramping. The major assessment is the pulse rate and rhythm, because potassium is directly linked to heart functioning. Hypocalcemia would be associated with increased muscle tone. The blood pressure is not directly affected by the potassium levels. It could be altered indirectly if arrhythmia occurs or the heart starts to fail. Your kidneys filter potassium from the meals and fluids you ingest. Your body gets rid of excess potassium when you pee. With hyperkalemia, your body has too much potassium for your kidneys to remove. Potassium consequently accumulates in your blood.
In addition to disorders like renal disease, several characteristics also contribute to hyperkalemia:
• A high-potassium diet, which may be the result of potassium supplements and salt substitutes.
• Medications that include potassium, such as certain high blood pressure drugs.
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a woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain of 4 on a scale of 1 to 10. she states that she thinks she is about 10 weeks pregnant. her vital signs are pulse, 86 beats per minute; respirations, 16 breaths per minute; and blood pressure, 112/78 mm hg. which signs/symptoms would the nurse report to the primary health care provider immediately? select all that apply.
A woman who is experiencing abdominal pain arrives there at emergency room. Pulse: 112 per minute, pain: 8 out of 10, & statement: "I feel like I'm going to pass out."
What causes abdominal pain?Any discomfort you have between the sternum and groin is considered abdominal pain. This is frequently referred to simply as the belly or stomach area. The abdominal region is divided into smaller regions because it houses a variety of different organs.
When was the abdominal pain a major issue?In the event that you have: soreness in the abdomen that lasts for a week or more. abdominal discomfort that worsens or persists for more than 24 to 48 hours while also accompanied by nausea and vomiting.
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Is a combination of nutrition, medicinal supplements and herbs, water therapy, homeopathy, and lifestyle modifications used to identify and treat the root causes of symptoms and disease.
Naturopathy is a combination of nutrition, medicinal supplements and herbs, water therapy, homeopathy, and lifestyle modifications used to identify and treat the root causes of symptoms and disease.
What is nutrition?Nutrition is the biological or biochemical process used by organism to take there food to support their life.
Herbs:These are simply wide spread group of plants.They consist aromatic properties that are used for garnishing and flavoring of food .They have a major use of medicinal purposes.Homeopathy:It is scientific alternative of medicine.it is founded by German physician Samuel Hahnemann in 1796.Homeopathy is safe, its medicines doesn't have much side effects.To know more about Naturopathy visit
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a client with a history of cervical insufficiency is seen for reports of pink-tinged discharge and pelvic pressure. the primary care provider decides to perform a cervical cerclage. the nurse teaches the client about the procedure. which client response indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Purse-string sutures are placed in cervix to prevent it from dilating.
Cervix is a passage that lets in fluids to go with the flow interior and from your uterus. it is also a powerful gatekeeper which can open and close in approaches that make pregnancy and childbirth possible.
The cervix itself can be pink and soft, or it is probably choppy, rough or splotchy. All of these are normal. In case you are pregnant, your cervix might have a bluish tint; when you have reached menopause or are breastfeeding, it is able to be pale.
Uterine abnormalities and genetic issues affecting a fibrous sort of protein that makes up your frame's connective tissues (collagen) may motive an incompetent cervix.
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a pta presents an in-service to members of a rehabilitation team on a spinal cord unit. the pta is discussing the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia, which should be:
When discussing autonomic dysreflexia, the PTA should identify bladder distension as the most common cause. The correct answer is D.
An aberrant, overreaction of the involuntary (parasympathetic) nervous system to stimulation is referred to as autonomic dysreflexia. Changes in heart rate may occur as a result of this response, as well as excessive sweating and high blood pressure.
Autonomic dysreflexia might happen all the time and can be caused by triggers such as bladder distension (most frequent), bladder or kidney stones, a kink in a urinary catheter, UTI, fecal impaction, bed sores, an abscess toenail, fractures, menstruating, hemorrhoids, etc.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are as follows:
A. Pounding headacheB. Change in positionC. Large increases in BPD. Bladder distensionThe correct answer is D.
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a client uses the alternative therapy of cascara sagrada, known as californian buckthorn, for ongoing management of chronic constipation. the nurse would monitor the client's laboratory results for which electrolyte imbalance specifically related to long-term use of this medication?
Hypokalemia electrolyte imbalance specifically related to long-term use of this medication.
Hypokalemia refers to a decrease than ordinary potassium level for your bloodstream. Potassium enables convey electric alerts to cells to your frame. it's far crucial to the right functioning of nerve and muscle tissue cells, specifically coronary heart muscle cells.
The most common purpose is excessive potassium loss in urine because of prescription medicinal drugs that boom urination. additionally called water tablets or diuretics, these forms of medications are often prescribed for people who've excessive blood strain or heart sickness.
Hypokalemia is treated with oral or intravenous potassium.
To prevent cardiac conduction disturbances, intravenous calcium is run to patients with hyperkalemic electrocardiography changes.
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which aspect of the clients life is most important for the nruse to explore when obtaining a chealth history from a cleient from a client newly diagnosed with cervical cancer
The aspect of the cancer patient's life that is most important for the nurse to explore when obtaining the health history is the patient's support system. This client, in this case, is newly diagnosed with cervical cancer. The correct answer is B.
What is the support system?A support system is a group of people that someone has in their life who can help them out emotionally or practically. The patient's entire health will improve due to these support systems, which have also been proven to lessen stress and anxiety.
A support network is crucial for cancer patients since it allows them to reestablish a sense of normality, retain mental stability, and increase their chances of having a successful clinical outcome. This is important both immediately following the diagnosis and during the whole course of treatment.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Sexual historyB. Support systemC. Obstetric historyD. Eliminations patternsThe correct answer to this question is B.
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The technician needs to make 25 mL of a 1. 0% fluconazole ointment. How much fluconazole should be weighed out for this ointment?
(blank) g
Please show your work!
Explain your answer!
No spam answer!
No incorrect answer!
No nonsense answer!
Thanks!
150 grams of fluconazole should be weighed out for this ointment.
Fluconazole is an antifungal medication. It is used in the treatment of fungal infections, including yeast infections in different parts of our body. It kills fungi by destroying the fungal cell membrane.Some side effects are signs of an allergic reaction (hives, difficult breathing, swelling in your face or throat) or a severe skin reaction (fever, sore throat, burning eyes, skin pain, red or purple skin rash with blistering and peeling).You may take fluconazole oral with or without food.Shake the oral suspension (liquid) before you measure a dose. Use the dosing syringe provided, or use a medicine dose-measuring device (not a kitchen spoon).To know more about medicines visit:
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Select the individuals who are more vulnerable to developing an active infection.- Elderly patients- Newborns- Patients taking immunosuppressive medications
Patients taking immunosuppressive medications and elderly patients are more vulnerable to developing an active infection.
One of the most significant issues with immunosuppressive medications is the increased risk of infections because these drugs severely impair the immune systems of their users.
Due to a number of circumstances, elderly persons are more prone to infections. As people age, comorbid illnesses like diabetes, renal failure, and arthritis become increasingly prevalent. People are more susceptible to infections due to the large number and variety of comorbid disorders.
The general vulnerability of a person exposed to a virus is influenced by a variety of innate factors (such as age, nutritional state, heredity, immunological competence, and pre-existing chronic conditions) and external ones (such as concurrent medication therapy).
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a nurse is accompanying a client to the mall to do some shopping. a neighbor of the nurse approaches and tries to engage the nurse in conversation. what would be the most appropriate response by the nurse to the neighbor?
Now is not good time to talk, I will telephone you. This should be the response of the Nurse.
What are the basic responsibility of Nurse?
Duties in nursing
One of a nurse's primary work duties is to:
Maintaining patient care throughout their shift for all patients.
Identifying any changes in a patient's health and acting appropriately.
Keeping track of and recording a patient's vital signs.
Having discussions with medical professionals to choose the best course of action.
Administering non-intravenous and over-the-counter medicines.
Changing dressings of the wounds.
Fostering a compassionate atmosphere by offering the patient and their family members emotional and psychological support.
Accurate use of medical equipment.
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a young child with a history of bronchial asthma is brought to the emergency department for the second time in a month with symptoms of audible expiratory wheezing and intercostal retractions. the parents voice frustration about repeated hospital visits. what teaching intervention is most important for the nurse to address with the parents?
providing a variety of resources to help parents quit smoking
How does smoking cause bronchial asthma?
Smoking is a primary allergen that can begin the inflammatory response in children with bronchial asthma. Few children with bronchial asthma will remain asymptomatic for the remainder of their lives. As many as one in two children who had childhood asthma and who are asymptomatic at 18 years of age are likely to have the recurrent, symptomatic disease by age 26 years. Asthma usually persists as a low-grade, subclinical condition. All age groups may experience life-threatening asthmatic episodes.
Hence, the answer is providing a variety of resources to help parents quit smoking
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